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Anna007 [38]
3 years ago
15

Peggy accepts a job offer as an advertising copywriter. Her boss immediately assigns her campaigns for products such as makeup a

nd cleaning products. Peggy asks for different clients, but her boss tells her she should stick to what she and "her kind" know best. Peggy is experiencing:a. sexism b. homophobia c. masochism d. sexual orientation
Business
1 answer:
yaroslaw [1]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Peggy is experiencing in her new job:

  • a. <u>sexism</u>.

Explanation:

<u>Sexism</u><u> is usually attributed to the discriminatory or stereotypical attitude of a person due to their gender</u>, this is the case when it is mentioned that men, even if they are still children, should wear dark colors and play only with cars or balls, or when it is mentioned that women should be the ones who take care of the children and take care of the housework. In this particular case, <u>the boss is exerting sexism on Peggy, hinting that Peggy can only run advertising campaigns on makeup</u>.

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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
zaharov [31]

Answer:

If a company pays more in dividends than it generates in net income, its retained earnings as reported on the balance sheet will decline from the previous year's balance.

Explanation:

The dividend is shown while preparing the retained earning statement. So, it does not affect the net income.

The highly liquid marketable securities does not show a decline in the current assets

If the long term bonds are issued to purchase fixed assets it would show under the long term liabilities and the long term assets rather than the current assets and the current liabilities

Account receivable are reported in the current assets rather than the current liabilities

We know that

The ending balance of retained earning = Beginning balance of retained earnings + net income - dividend paid

If the dividend amount is more than the net income so the ending balance of retained earning will decline than its beginning year balance.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A quality control activity analysis indicated the following four activity costs of an administrative department:
Doss [256]

Answer:

total sales are the internal failure costs is 2%

Explanation:

given data

form to reduce errors =  $15,000

customer complaints = 75,000

Verifying = 30,000

Correcting errors = 60,000

Total = $180,000

sales = $3,000,000

to find out

total sales are the internal failure costs

solution

we know here that internal failture cost is express as

internal failture cost  = correcting error in form   ...........1

internal failture cost  =  $60000

and

internal failture cost as % of total cost is here as

internal failture cost to sale = \frac{internal\ failture\ cost}{sales}   .......2

internal failture cost to sale = \frac{60000}{3000000}

internal failture cost to sale = 2%

so total sales are the internal failure costs is 2%

3 0
3 years ago
Point x on a linear production possibilities curve represents a combination of 50 watches and 20 clocks, and point y represents
Veronika [31]

Based on the coordinates of point x and those of point y on the linear production possibilities curve, the opportunity cost of producing one watch is 2 fewer clocks.

<h3>What is the opportunity cost of producing one watch?</h3>

The opportunity cost of producing one watch is the number of clocks that needs to be given up per watch.

This will therefore be the slope of the linear production possibilities curve which can be found as:

= (Y₂ - Y₁) / (X₂ - X₁)

Solving gives:

= (80 - 20) / (20 - 50)

= 60 / -20

= -2 clocks

This means that for every watch produced, there will be 2 clocks that will be foregone to make that watch.

In conclusion, the opportunity cost is 2 clocks.

Find out more on opportunity cost at brainly.com/question/481029.

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
Heller Corporation has aged its accounts receivable and estimated uncollectible accounts as follows (in thousands). Age of Recei
AlexFokin [52]

Answer:

Current                      $11,000  19%  $2,090  

Past Due 30-60 days  $2,400  3%  $72  

Past due 61-90  days  $1,700  6%  $102  

                                            $2,264  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 2.264

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 2.264

Explanation:

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % estimated of accounts receivables as CREDIT, this case $2,264 by the aging method to estimate uncollectible accounts.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets .

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

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3 years ago
This is a good question to ask during an interview A) How many vacation days do I get? B) What kind of products or services do y
jeka94

Answer:

C) How many hours of training will I need?

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