Answer:
The expected rate of return on this investment is:
21%
Explanation:
Cost of computer = $200,000
Annual cash flows for 5 years = $48,271
Total cash flows = $241,355 ($48,271 x 5)
Returns = $41,355 ($241,355 - $200,000)
The expected rate of return = Returns/Costs * 100
or the average of returns and the average of investments (they yield the same results)
Using the total returns and investment:
= $41,355/$200,000 * 100
= 21%
Using the average returns and investment:
= $8,271/$40,000 * 100
= 21%
Answer:
a. the difference between actual and budgeted fixed overhead costs.
Explanation:
As we know that
The variance is shows the difference between the actual amount and the budgeted amount or estimate amount
So, the total fixed overhead variance is the difference between the actual fixed overhead costs and the budgeted fixed overhead costs i.e to be fixed in nature
Hence, the first option is correct
Answer:
a. 2017 ⇒ 1.50
2016 ⇒1.58
b. Deteriorate
Explanation:
a. Current ratio 2017
= Current Assets / Current liabilities
= 6,708,700 / 4,470,000
= 1.50
Current ratio 2016
= 5,848,000 / 3,700,000
= 1.58
b. The current ratio went from 1.58 in 2016 to 1.50 in 2017 which would mean that it deteriorated.
Answer:
C. A risk averse investor would choose the economy in which stock returns are independent because risk can be diversified away in a large portfolio.
Explanation:
if stock prices move together, (positive correlation), the volatility of the portfolio will be higher. Higher volatility means higher risk. This is the case with the first economy.
In the second economy however, the stocks are independent of each other meaning there is zero correlation between stocks and hence the portfolio volatility will be much lesser.
As a risk-averse investor you will prefer the portfolio with lower volatility for the same expected return.
Answer:
Explanation:
Last year Current year
Selling Price 10 10
Varaible Price 5 6
Contribution Margin 5 4
Break even is the point where total cost is equal to total revenue mean no profit and loss.
company earns the contribution margin after covering the variable cost, now only fix cost remains for break even.
Break Even using FIFO method : first In first out system
Fix Cost = 86000
contribution from opening units(6000*5) = 30000
Remaining Fix cost that should be Covered from
current year products = 56000
Units to be sold for break-even ( 56000/4) = 14000
so we have break even units 6000+14000 = 20000
Fix cost = -86000
Opening 6000*5 = 30000
Current 14000*4 = 56000
Profit = 0
Break Even using LIFO method : Last in first out
Fix Cost = 86000
Break even = Fix Cost / Contribution margin
Break even = 86000/4 =21500
current production is 24000 which is higher than break even units so we can cover the fix cost from current year production because company is using lifo method. we do not need opening units for the break even.
