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Naddika [18.5K]
2 years ago
5

In the market for magazines, the "income effect" means that

Business
1 answer:
Assoli18 [71]2 years ago
5 0
The income effect shows a change in someone or the economy's income and how it changes the quantity of a good or service. If one is making more, they are usually buying more of something. If someone is making less, they are often buying less of something.

In the market for magazines, the "income effect" means that if the price of a magian rises magazine readers will purchase less magazines. 
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Each machine must be run by one of 19 cross-trained workers who are each available 35 hours per week. The plant has 10 type 1 ma
Mrac [35]

Answer:

The Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

Explanation:

As the question is not complete, the complete question is found online and is attached herewith.

Let the number of product 1 to be produced is X, that of product 2 is Y and product 3 is Z

so  the maximizing function is the profit function which is given as

P=90X+120Y+150Z

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 10 type 1 machines so the total number of machine 1 hours are 40*10=400 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1, product 2 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1 and product 3 uses 1 hour of machine 1 so

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 6 type 2 machines so the total number of machine 2 hours are 40*6=240 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 3 machine hours of machine 2, product 2 uses 4 machine hours of machine 2 and product 3 uses 6 hour of machine 2 so

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 8 type 3 machines so the total number of machine 3 hours are 40*8=320 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 4 machine hours of machine 3, product 2 uses 6 machine hours of machine 3 and product 3 uses 5 hour of machine 3 so

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

Now as the machine 1 is used as 2X+2Y+Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

Now as the machine 2 is used as 3X+4Y+6Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

Now as the machine 3 is used as 4X+6Y+5Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

Now the workers are available for 35 hours so the worker available at the machine 1 is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}

That of machine 2 is given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}

That of machine 3 is given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}

As the total number of workers is 19 so the constraint is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

So the Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

4 0
3 years ago
1. Nhận định nào sau đây không chính xác:
Lisa [10]
Yuh going down omg shawty thinks she omg I’m shawty thinks she’s omg
Going down and it’s going down omg shawty thinks omg hey
4 0
3 years ago
Progressive companies who want to attract and keep good employees are now offering their employees ________ benefits, such as on
leva [86]
<span>Progressive companies who want to attract and keep good employees are now offering their employees fringe benefits, such as onsite dry cleaning services, shoe repair, onsite medical care, and even free breakfasts. These benefits attract quality employees to the companies and the company ultimately benefits from the addition of such employees. It is actually a mutually beneficial effect.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2015, East Lansing, Inc, issues $2,000,000 of 10 percent, 5-year bonds that pay interest of $100,000 semiannually.
Trava [24]

Answer:

The answer is option D

Explanation:

The bond can be issued at par, at a discount or at a premium depending on the coupon rate and the market interest. The price of the bond which pays semi annual coupon can be calculated using the formula of bond price. The formula to calculate the price of the bond is attached.

First we need to determine the semi annual coupon payment, periods and YTM.

Semi annual coupon payments = 2000000 * 0.1 * 6/12 = 100000

Semi annual periods = 5 * 2 = 10

Semi annual YTM = 0.08 * 6/12 = 0.04

Bond Price = 100000 * [(1 - (1+0.04)^-10) / 0.04]  +  2000000 / (1+0.04)^10

Bond Price = $2162217.916

The price of the bond is thus $2162290 approx. The difference in answers is due to rounding off.

5 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of 2018, England Dresses has an inventory of $140,000. However, management wants to reduce the amount of invent
Bad White [126]

Answer:

purchases = 160000

Explanation:

given data

beginning inventory = $140,000

amount of inventory on hand = $80,000

net sales = $400,000

gross profit rate = 40%

solution

we first Computation of cost of goods sold  hat is

Gross profit rate = \frac{gross profit}{net sales} × 100

= \frac{gross profit}{400000} = = \frac{40}{100}

= 100 Gross profit = 16000000

so

Gross profit = 160000

and

Cost of goods sold is = sales - gross profit

so

Cost of goods sold = 400000 - 160000

Cost of goods sold = 240000

and

Cost of goods sold = opening inventory + purchases - closing inventory  

so put here value

240000 = 140000 + purchases - 60000

so purchases = 160000

7 0
3 years ago
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