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zimovet [89]
3 years ago
7

B&B Corporation is authorized to sell 60,000 shares of $10 par, 6% cumulative preferred stock and 90,000 shares of $6 par co

mmon stock. There are 30,000 shares of preferred stock outstanding and 30,000 shares of common stock outstanding. A $40,000 cash dividend has been declared by the board of directors. What is the common stock dividend per share amount (rounded)?
Business
1 answer:
Vesna [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Dividend paid to preferred stock holders = 6% x $10 x 30,000 = $18,000

Dividend paid to common stock holder = $40,000 - $18,000 = $22,000

Explanation:

The dividend paid to preferred stock holders is a function of dividend rate, par value and number of preferred stocks outstanding.

The dividend paid to common stock holders is the difference between total dividend declared and dividend paid to preferred stock holders.

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In 2022, internal auditors discovered that Axel Corp., had debited an expense account for the $2,090,000 cost of a machine purch
antoniya [11.8K]

Answer:

Debit Depreciation expense $570,000

Credit Accumulated depreciation $570,000

<em>(To record the accumulated depreciation for 3 years)</em>

Explanation:

Using a Straight-line depreciation method, depreciation expense = (Cost - Salvage value)/Estimated useful life

Depreciation expense = $2,090,000 / 11 years = $190,000 yearly

We would assume that the internal auditors detected the error at the beginning of Year 2022, so the accumulated depreciation for 3 years (Jan 2019 - Dec 2021) would be $190,000 x 3 years = $570,000

The following correctional entries will apply:

Debit Fixed asset - Machine $2,090,000

Credit Expense account $2,090,000

<em>(To appropriately record the purchase of machine)</em>

The required adjustment fot the accumulated depreciation is recorded above under the answer section.

3 0
3 years ago
You have $12,500 you want to invest for the next 30 years. You are offered an investment plan that will pay you 7 percent per ye
lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

Balance after 30 years = $151,018.50

Explanation:

In order to calculate this, we will calculate the future value on an amount invested, gaining interest over the years of investment, and this is given by:

FV = PV (1 + r)^{t}

where:

FV = future value

PV = present value

r = interest rate

t = time in years.

Hence the future value is calculated as follows:

1. For the first 10 years at 7% interest:

7% interest = 7/100 = 0.07

FV = 12,500 (1 + 0.07)^{10}

FV = 12,500 (1.07)^{10}\\FV = 12,500 * 1.967 = 24,589.392

2. For the last 20 years at 9.5%(0.095) interest:

Note that for the remaining 20 years, the present value (PV) used = 24,589.392, as ending balance after the first 10 years

FV = 24,589.392 (1 + 0.095)^{20}

FV = 24,589.392 (1.095)^{20}\\FV= 24,589.392 * 6.1416\\FV = 151,018.496

Total Future value earned = $151,018.50

5 0
3 years ago
Karin Company's loan is due on July 1, 2018. What conditions must Karin meet (at a minimum) so that the note can be classified a
Sindrei [870]

Answer: D. A & C

Explanation:

A long term liability is one that is due to be paid in a period longer than a year. The loan is due in less than a year so the only way to classify it as a long term liability is to make it a loan that will extend past a year. This can be done through refinancing which is to replace the current loan with another loan.  

Karin's company therefore would need to demonstrate that the obligation can be refinanced on a long-term basis by them and they must also have the intention to do so as well.

8 0
3 years ago
What are the three riches nations in the world​
Rus_ich [418]

Answer:

1. Qatar

2. Macao SAR

3. Luxembourg

Explanation:

The 3 wealthiest countries in the world according to GDP (PPP) is Qatar - $134,623, Macao SAR - $122,201 and  Luxembourg - $108,813

5 0
3 years ago
Accrual accounting requires that the cost associated with the failure of credit customers to pay their bills should be recorded
Pepsi [2]

Answer:

Explanation:

Failure of credit customers to pay their bills is considered a bad debt in Accounting. This is recored as a bad debt expense in journal entries in the <em>period when the credit sale occurred</em>. This ensures that these bad debt expense matches the revenues earned during that period. In a company's financial statements, bad debt expense is recorded in the Income statement as <em>selling expenses.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
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