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TiliK225 [7]
3 years ago
5

When comparing the difference between an upstream and downstream transfer of inventory, and using the initial value method, whic

h of the following statements is true?
a. Income from subsidiary will be lower by the amount of the ending inventory profit multiplied by the noncontolling interest percentage for downstream transfers.
b. Income from subsidiary will be higher by the amount of the ending inventory profit multiplied by the noncontrolling interest percentage for downstream transfers.
c. Incrom from subsidiary will be reduced for downstream ending inventory profit but not for upstream profit, before the effect of the noncontrolling interest.
d. Income from the subsidiary will be reduced for upstream ending inventory profit but not for downstream profit, before the effect of the nonconrolling interest.
e. Income from subsidiary will be the same for upstream and downstream profit.
Business
1 answer:
scZoUnD [109]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. Income from subsidiary will be lower by the amount of the ending inventory profit multiplied by the noncontolling interest percentage for downstream transfers.

Explanation:

When we transfer inventory from subsidiary to holding there will be some profit element included in cost. so when we consolidate the account of subsidiary to its holding at the time of reporting we should removed that unrealised profit included in the inventory.

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Each service starts on a different date because the services depend on each other. Enter the starting dates for the remaining se
gladu [14]

Answer:

a. Copy the range of cell D7:D9 then select cell D6 and paste the selection with date format selected. The function will be represented in formula bar with adding +4;365 days.

b. Copy the range of cell D7:D9 then select cell D6 and paste the selection with date format selected. The function will be represented in formula bar with adding -3;365 days.

c. In the formula bar type =365 days; +2 : E6

d. In the formula bar type =365 days ; +2 : C6

Explanation:

Excel is a software which helps the users to easily calculate complex calculation with just one function input. The users can create worksheets using the excel and then link those worksheets with each other. The data can be displayed in the form of table or simple text. It has multiple options to create annual day wise filtered worksheets.

7 0
3 years ago
Sarasota Company has a balance of $2,200 in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts before adjustment. The estimated uncollectibles unde
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

Debit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $2900

Credit : Accounts receivables = $2900

Explanation:

An account for allowance for doubtful debts is a contra account created, predicting that certain debtors will not be able to pay for the goods and services they purchased. This may be based on historical experiences. Doubtful debts aren’t officially uncollectible, it is simply an estimation made, but bad debts are, where you have officially written off a certain accounts receivable as uncollectible.

An allowance for doubtful debts is recorded in the balance sheet, directly under accounts receivables. Bad debts are recorded as an expense in the income statement. When there is an allowance for doubtful debts, the bad debts account is debited and the allowance for doubtful debts account is credited.

According to the question, the balance was $2,200 (Cr) in the allowance for doubtful debts account. The initial expected amount for allowance for doubtful debts was $5100 (Cr). This means that the difference was the amount that was declared as uncollectible and officially written off i.e. bad debts. Thus $2900 ($5100 -$2200) would have been confirmed as bad debts.

The entry to record the above transaction is:

Debit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $2900

Credit : Accounts receivables = $2900

5 0
3 years ago
All of the following statements regarding leases are true except : A. For a capital lease the lessee records the leased item as
faust18 [17]

Answer: B. Capital leases do not transfer ownership of the asset under the lease, but operating leases often do.

Explanation:

When using Capital Leases, the lessee will record the lease as if it were their own asset and as a result will also depreciate it. The lessee will also create a long term liability on their balance sheet for the asset.

Capital leases usually also involve a transfer of ownership to the lessee at the end of the lease term. Operating Leases on the other hand do not have these features. They are more like a rental of an asset and as such are recorded as a rental expense in the books of the lessee. The ownership remains with the lessor in an Operating Lease and the asset will be returned once the lease period is over.

5 0
3 years ago
Hyu Corporation bases its predetermined overhead rate on the estimated labor-hours for the upcoming year. At the beginning of th
Free_Kalibri [48]

Answer:

The predetermined overhead rate for the recently completed year was $25.33

Explanation:

The formula to compute the predetermined overhead rate is shown below:

Predetermined overhead rate = (Total estimated manufacturing overhead) ÷ (estimated direct labor-hours)

where,

Total estimated manufacturing overhead = Estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead + estimated variable manufacturing overhead rate × estimated labor hours

= $1,230,440 + $3.12 × 55,400 hours

= $1,230,440 + $172,848

= $1,403,288

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the rate would equal to

= $1,403,288 ÷ 55,400 hours

= $25.33

8 0
3 years ago
I know this will be deleted but any on wanna play pad lethttps://pad let.com/ejkindred27
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

sure

Explanation:

what game?

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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