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Cloud [144]
3 years ago
13

TopChop sells hairstyling franchises. TopChop receives $50,000 from a new franchisee for providing initial training, equipment,

and furnishings that have a stand-alone selling price of $50,000. TopChop also receives $30,000 per year for use of the TopChop name and for ongoing consulting services (starting on the date the franchise is purchased). Carlos became a TopChop franchisee on July 1, 2021, and on August 1, 2021, had completed training and was open for business. How much revenue in 2021 will TopChop recognize for its arrangement with Carlos?
Business
1 answer:
Brut [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$65,000

Explanation:

Under accrual method of accounting, the revenue is recognized when the same is accrued to the concern.

The revenue of $30,000 will be recognized from the starting on the date the franchise is purchased.

Hence, $30,000 will be recognized from July 1, 2021 upto to Dec 31, 2021 i.e. for half of the year.

Amount of revenue recognized by Top Chop in 2021 for its arrangement with Carlos:

= Amount receives from initial training + Amount receives from using name of the company

= $50,000 + ($30,000 ÷ 2)

= $65,000

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Which of the statements below is​ FALSE?
Alecsey [184]

Answer:

C. The standard of one vote for each share cannot be altered.

Explanation:

Shares are sold to individuals that now obtain ownership rights of a company.

Common share holders are entitled to voting in of new board members and also have the ability to vote for changes in bylaws of the company.

Also common shareholders are shares have different classes with different voting rights.

However it is not true that the standard of one vote for each share cannot be altered.

When more shares are issued by a company it can result in dilution of shares. That means for example if a person has 10,000 shares in a company with 1 million shares, and the company now issues an extra 1 million shares making 2 million in total now.

The shareholder's standard of vote for each share is now halved

5 0
2 years ago
A company purchased a weaving machine for $190,000. The machine has a useful life of 8 years and a residual value of $10,000. It
pav-90 [236]

Answer:

The answer is option (B), accumulated depreciation at end of the second year=36,000+45,600=$81,600

Explanation:

Determine the depreciable cost using the formula below;

depreciable cost=acquisition cost-residual value

where;

acquisition cost=$190,000

residual value=$10,000

replacing;

depreciable cost=190,000-10,000=$180,000

depreciable cost=$180,000

Determine the cost per unit as follows;

depreciable cost=cost per bolt×number of bolts produced

where;

depreciable cost=$180,000

cost per bolt=c

number of bolts produced=75,000 bolts

replacing;

180,000=c×75,000

75,000 c=180,000

c=180,000/75,000=2.4

The cost per bolt=$2.4

annual depreciation for the first year=(2.4×15,000)=$36,000

annual depreciation for the second year=(2.4×19,000)=$45,600

accumulated depreciation at end of the second year=36,000+45,600=$81,600

3 0
3 years ago
The sata/600 standard is also known by what other name?
jolli1 [7]
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3 years ago
In the trading of a security, the dealer's spread refers to _____. a. the sum of the bid and asked prices of a security, which r
ArbitrLikvidat [17]

Answer:

d. the difference between the bid and asked prices of a security, which represents the dealer's markup, or profit from a security transaction.

Explanation:

CAPM is an acronym for capital asset pricing model. The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) can be defined as a model or formula that can be used to calculate an investment risk and the expected return on an investment (assets).

Simply stated, the capital asset pricing model gives an investor the relationship between the risk of investing in securities and its expected returns. Thus, it assists investors in making well-informed decisions about whether or not to add to a portfolio.

Additionally, the expected return could be either a profit or loss depending on the risks associated with the securities.

Mathematically, the CAPM is given by this formula;

R_{a} = R_{rf} + \beta_{a} * (R_{m} - R_{rf})

Where;

R_{a} = Expected return on a security

R_{rf} = Risk-free rate

\beta_{a} = beta of the security

R_{m} = Expected return of the market

(R_{m} - R_{rf}) = Equity market premium

In the trading of a security, the dealer's spread refers to the difference between the bid and asked prices of a security, which represents the dealer's markup, or profit from a security transaction.

Simply stated, the bid-ask spread refers to the amount by which the bid price by a dealer is lower than the ask-price for a security or an asset in the market at a specific period of time.

The bid-ask spread exists because of the need for dealers to cover expenses and make a profit. A bid-ask spread is use in the transaction of the following items; options, future contracts, stocks, and currency pairs.

Generally, a dealer who is willing to sell an asset or securities would receive a bid price while the price at which the dealer is willing to sell his asset to another dealer (buyer) is the ask price.

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2 years ago
Compared to a barter economy, using money increases efficiency by reducing.
marishachu [46]

Answer:

Compared to a barter economy, using money increases efficiency by reducing: transaction costs. Barter is the: direct exchange of goods and services.

7 0
2 years ago
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