Answer:
a manicurist who works from her home or at clients’ houses
Explanation:
Answer:A)Increase in one asset, decrease in another asset.- purchase of machinery in cash . ie. increase in asset and decrease in cash
B)Increase in asset, increase in liability - purchase goods on credit ie. increase in stock and increase in creditors
C)Increase in asset, increase in owner's capital -issue of shares ie. increase in share capital and increase in cash .
D)Decrease in asset, decrease in liability -Payment to creditors ie, decrease in cash and decrease in creditors
E)Decrease in asset, decrease in owner's capital- drawings (withdrawn by partners ) ie, decrease in capital ad decrease in cash
F)Increase in one liability, decrease in another liability- Bills Payable issued to Creditors.ie., This will reduce one liability (Creditors) on the one hand and increase another liability (Bills Payable) on the other hand.
G)Increase in liability, decrease in owner's capital - Conversion of share capital into debentures.ie, increase in debentures and decrease in share capital .
H)Decrease in liability, increase in owner's capital.-Conversion of debentures into shares.,ie. increase in share capital and decrease in debenture (long term liability )
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Explanation:
Real property is a <span>physical property such as land
and buildings (letter D). It is defined as a property in which there is a land
and a property attached into it. An example of this is a building or pond. It is also considered as an
immovable property or simply a real estate.</span>
An adjusting
entry by definition is an accounting journal at the end of an accounting period
which adjust income and expenses so that they comply with the accrual basis of
accounting.
In this case,
since $18,000 is still unearned, therefore the amount of adjusting entry is:
Adjusting
Entry = Balance – Unearned
Adjusting
Entry =$72,000 – $18,000
<span>Adjusting
Entry = $54,000</span>
Answer:
(1) 95.23 (2)5.008% or 5% (3) The value of equity is zero (4)The future value of the firm will be 110 mil. than Firm equity will be 110-100 =10 mil not zero
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
The worth in good in this example= 110 mil
Worth in bad in this example =90 mil
The future value =( 110+90)/2
=100
Future value = 100
Now
(1) The Present value = F/(1+r)^n
=100/1.05
=95.23
(2) the yield to maturity is given below:
YTM = (FV/PV)^n -1
Here
FV = future value
PV = present value
n=years
Thus
(100/95.23)^1 -1
=5.008% or 5%
Since the bond are zero coupon bond so interest rate is equal to YTM
(3) The total worth =100 mil
Thus
The Debt +equity =100
100+equity =100
Equity =100-100
=0
Hence the value of equity is zero.
The firm BIG is only debt firm. Firm do not have equity.
(4) The future value of the firm will be 110 mil. than Firm equity will be 110-100
=10 mil not zero
