Answer:
the need that drives a person to work and even struggle for the objective that he wants to achieve
Explanation:
Answer:
20.1%
Explanation:
In capital asset prcing model (CAPM), cost of equity (or cost of retained earnings in this context) is calculated as below:
<em>Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return + beta x (market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em>
Please note that <em>(market index return - risk-free rate of return)</em> is equal to <em>market risk premium</em>
Putting all the number together, we have:
Cost of equity/retained earnings = 2.5% + 2.2 x 8% = 20.1%
<em>Note: The dividend growth rate, tax rate & stock standard deviation is not relevant in answering the question.</em>
Answer:
Current value from operations is $534.71 million.
Explanation:
The value from operations can be calculated by discounting back the free cash flow of the firm. The first three year's FCF will be discounted back using the WACC and when the growth rate o FCF becomes constant after Year 3, the terminal value will be calculated and discounted back too.
The current value from operations = FCF1 / (1+WACC) + FCF2 / (1+WACC)² + FCF3 / (1+WACC)³ + [FCF3 * (1+g) / WACC - g] / (1+WACC)³
Current value from operations = 20 / (1+0.1) + 25 / (1+0.1)² + 30 / (1+0.1)³ + [30 * (1+0.05) / (0.1 - 0.05)] / (1+0.1)³
Current value from operations = $534.71 million
Answer:
5.47%
Explanation:
The computation of yield to maturity is shown in the attachment:
Given that
FV = $1000
PV = ($980)
PMT = 5% ÷ 2 × 1,000 = $25
Number of years = 5 years × 2 = 10 Years
The formula is shown below:
= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after applying the above formula, the yield to maturity is
= 2.73 × 2
= 5.46%
Therefore with the help of spreadsheets (as attached), we could explain in a better manner.
