Answer / Step-by-step explanation:
To properly understand the principle behind the solving of this question, it would be necessary to define and go through some basic terms and their definition.
Therefore to start with, a completely randomized single factor is a type of experiment in which One factor of two or more levels has been manipulated. e.g, the experiment may be investigating the effect of different levels of cost, expenditure or different advertisements
Also, it should be noted that in the area of groping of the experiment, At this point, Each group of different level receives one of the a levels of the independent variable with participants being treated identically in every other respect. The two-group experiment considered previously is a special case of this type of design.
Consequentially, the answer to the narrative of the question would then be:
N= 3 factors levels x 5 replicates = 15
Degrees of freedom for the factor: a – 1 = 3 – 1 = 2
Degrees of freedom Total = 15 – 1= 14
Degrees of freedom error = Total – factor = 14 – 2 = 12
Bounds of P-value for F = 2.91 with 2 and 12 degrees of freedom are
= 0.01 < P < 0.05
Multiply the first equation by 7 and the second equation by 2, and then add.
Step-by-step explanation:
2f - 5g=-9
-7f + 3g=4
To eliminate any variable , we need to make the coefficients same with different sign and add it
the coefficient of 'f' in first equation is 2
the coefficient of 'f' in second equation is -7
We already have different sign so we make the coefficients same
To make the coefficient same , we multiply the first equation by 7 and second equation by 2
So equation becomes
14f - 35g = -63
-14f + 6g = 8
Now when we add both equations, 'f' gets cancelled
-29g = -55
Answer:
1
Step-by-step explanation:
If the tax rate is 8%, we need to find 108% of the price, or 330 times 1.08, which is $356.4
Given:
You spin the spinner once.
The possibilities are 6, 8, 17.
To find:
The probability of getting a prime number, i.e., P(prime).
Solution:
In the given numbers 6, 8, 17, only 17 is a prime number because it is divisible by 1 and itself.
6 and 8 are divisible by 2, so they are not prime.
The probability (in %) of getting a prime number is:




Therefore, the correct option is A.