Answer:
Year 1 = $1,100
Year 2 = $1,330
Year 3 = $1,550
Year 4 = $2,290
(a) If the discount rate is 6 percent, then the future value of these cash flows in Year 4:
To solve this problem, we must find the FV of each cash flow and add them. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:
= $6737.51
(b) If the discount rate is 14 percent, then the future value of these cash flows in Year 4:
= $7415.17
(c) If the discount rate is 21 percent, then the future value of these cash flows in Year 4:
= $8061.47
Answer:
Title 1 is "careers" and title 2 is "jobs"
Explanation:
Answer: The investment is written down to fair value, and only the credit loss component of the impairment loss is recognized in net income.
Explanation: The fair value of the debt is simply its value if you adjust the price of the debt so that a buyer would be earning the market rate of interest. If the fair value of a debt investment that is classified as an available-for-sale investment declines for a reason that is viewed as "other than temporary" because the company has incurred a credit loss on the investment then the investment is written down to fair value, and only the credit loss component of the impairment loss is recognized in net income.
Answer:
4.20 and normal good
Explanation:
The computation of the income elasticity of demand is shown below:
= (change in quantity demanded ÷ average of quantity demanded) ÷ (percentage change in income ÷ average of quantity income)
where,
Change in income would be
= Q2 - Q1
= 109,500 - 102,300
= 7,200
And, average of income would be
= (109,500 + 102,300) ÷ 2
= 105,900
Change in quantity demanded would be
= 4 - 3
= 1
And, average of quantity demanded would be
= ($4 + 3) ÷ 2
= 3.5
So, after solving this, the income elasticity of demand is 4.20
Since the elasticity comes in positive which means the good is a normal goods
