(Answer:
P(Bl or Yl) = 45%
(Pk on 2nd draw) = 18%
Step-by-step explanation:
There are a total of 20 marbles (3 + 4 + 5 + 8) in the bag. Since each marble is replaced once drawn, there is no change in the total count from one draw to another (unconditional probability).
So
P(Bl or Yl) = (5 + 4)/20 = 9/20 = .45 = 45%
Then
P(Pk on 2nd draw) = P(1st draw) * P(2nd draw)
= 9/20 * 8/20 = 72/400 = 9/50 = .18 = 18%
Answer:
WC
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The last one: 79, 79, 79, 79, 79, 79, 79, 79, 79, 79 because there isn't any difference in the numbers.
S.D.: 0
Hey there!
So, if
, this would mean that we would do
and from this, we would get 8.
We will then need to find what is
.
=
So, the equation would really look like
. . .
Hope this helps.
~Jurgen