Answer:
1.2
Step-by-step explanation:
The variance of a binomial distribution is:
σ² = n p (1 − p)
where n is the number of trials and p is the probability of success.
Given n = 5 and p = 0.40:
σ² = 5 (0.40) (1 − 0.40)
σ² = 1.2
I believe the answer is C.
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
D is your answer
.............
Answer:
32
Step-by-step explanation:
If you already have an angle of 148 on the arc TU, then 180-148=32
