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Anastaziya [24]
3 years ago
6

Why does the risk of incorrect rejection result in an efficiency loss to the auditor?

Business
1 answer:
Sever21 [200]3 years ago
8 0
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It announces that it plans to pay dividends of $1 per share exactly three years from now and $2 per share exactly four years fro
kkurt [141]

The Question is incomplete.

The complete question is as follows:

It announces that it plans to pay dividends of $1 per share exactly three years from now and $2 per share exactly four years from now. From year 5 onwards, dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate of 10% per year. The company pays no dividends in years one and two. The risk-free rate is 5%, the company's beta is 1.5 and the expected return on the market is 11%. Calculate the price of this stock today

Answer:

Price of stock =  $34.42

Explanation:

<em>The Dividend Valuation Model is a technique used to value the worth of an asset. According to this model, the worth of an asset is the sum of the present values of its future cash flows discounted at the required rate of return.</em>

Required rate of return

Using the CAPM , the rate of return on equity can be determined as follows:

E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)

E(r) =? , Rf- 5%, Rm- 11%, β- 1.5

Ke = 5% + 1.5× (11-5)%

   = 14%

Present value of Dividends(PV)

Year                                                      PV

3                       $1.00, × (1.14^(-3) =   0.6749

4                        $2.00× 1.14^(-4) =  1.18416

<em>5 and beyond</em>

<em>This will be done in two (2) steps as follows:</em>

PV in year 4 = (2 × 1.10) /(0.14-0.1) = 55

PV in year 0 = 55× 1.14^(-4) = 32.56

Price of stock

=  0.6749  +  1.18416 + 32.56

=  $34.423

7 0
3 years ago
While harry was intoxicated, he sold his car to ben for substantially less than its fair market value. this contract is consider
VMariaS [17]
The answer to this question is that the contract is voidable. A voidable contract specificallt means that the contract can still be implemented or affirmed or rejected by one of the parties due to valid reasons. A situation where in a contract can be voidable is when the other party is not in the capacity to enter into a contract.
7 0
3 years ago
1) When there is uncertainty in the marketplace, what happens to yield spreads and why?2) Why do venture capital companies often
Yuki888 [10]

Answer and Explanation:

1. When there is high uncertainty in the market, there will be high yield spreads. This is because the higher the risk the higher the profit or compensation for risk

2.preferred stock positions pay more consistent dividends that common stock positions and also pay higher than bonds.

3.Accelerated depreciation is depreciation method in accounting that deducts higher depreciation expenses in the early life of an asset therefore leaving the company to pay less taxes on these assets and more cash flow. Increased cash flow consequently encourages and leads to more investment

5 0
4 years ago
Computing first-year depreciation and book value At the beginning of the year, Austin Airlines purchased a used airplane for $33
irakobra [83]

Answer:

1. a. $560,000

  b. $13,400,000

  c. $7,700,000

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense and the year end book value for the first year is shown below:

a) Straight-line method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($33,500,000 - $5,500,000) ÷ (5 years)

= ($28,000,000) ÷ (5 years)  

= $560,000

In this, the depreciation expense is same for all the remaining useful life

(b) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= Percentage ÷ useful life

= 100 ÷ 5

= 20%

Now the rate is double So, 40%

In year 1, the original cost is $33,500,000, so the depreciation is $13,400,000 after applying the 40% depreciation rate

(c) Units-of-production method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (estimated miles)  

= ($33,500,000 - $5,500,000) ÷ ($4,000,000 miles)

= ($28,000,000) ÷ ($4,000,000 miles)  

= $7 per miles

Now for the first year, it would be  

= Expected miles in first year × depreciation per miles

= 1,100,000 miles × $7 per miles

= $7,700,000

Now the book value would be

Straight-line method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation  

= $33,500,000  -  $560,000

= $32,940,000

Double-declining balance method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation  

= $33,500,000  - $13,400,000

= $20,100,000

Units-of-production method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation  

= $33,500,000  - $7,700,000

= $25,800,000

5 0
4 years ago
A coupon bond that pays interest of $90 annually has a par value of $1,000, matures in 5 years, and is selling today at a $15 ab
Digiron [165]
The answer would be A
5 0
3 years ago
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