Answer:
Current rate method
Explanation:
Translation is defined as the conversion of financial statement of a foreign subsidiary from the foreign currency to local currency.
This is done to reduce the effect of foreign exchange risk.
If a foreign subsidiary is exposed to foreign exchange risk the best translation method is the current rate method.
Current rate method uses the current exchange rate in translation.
Translation is used when the local currency is the functional currency of the company.
FM 5-19 supersedes FM 100-14.
Field Manual 5-19 introduced to the Army the first doctrinal publication on risk management. It detailed the application of a step-by-step process to conserve combat power and resources.
This milestone manual outlined a framework that leaders could use to make force protection a routine part of planning, preparing, and executing operational, training, and garrison missions.
ATP 5-19 supersedes FM 5-19 as of April 2014.
Answer is $287,000 and $185,200 respectively for the company's gross profit and operating expenses.
Let us see how to solve it. As we can see the formula for Gross Margin is as follows -
Gross Margin= Net Sales − Cost of Goods Sold which is $852,000 − $565,000 = $287,000. So the total Gross Margin is $287,000.
Now the formula for Operating Expenses is as follows-
Operating Expenses= Gross Margin − Net Income; Hence we have to do $287,000 − $101,800 = $185,200. So the total Operating Expenses is $185,200. Hence answer is $287,000 and $185,200 respectively for the company's gross profit and operating expenses.
Learn more about operating expenses here-
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Answer:
A. 3.21 years
Explanation:
In the payback, we analyze in how many years the invested amount is recovered. The computation is shown below:
In year 0 = $7,500
In year 1 = $1,100
In year 2 = $1,640
In year 3 = $3,800
In year 4 = $4,500
If we sum the first 3 year cash inflows than it would be $6,540
Now we deduct the $6,540 from the $7,500 , so the amount would be $960 as if we added the fourth year cash inflow so the total amount exceed to the initial investment. So, we deduct it
And, the next year cash inflow is $4,500
So, the payback period equal to
= 3 years + $960 ÷ $4,500
= 3.21 years
In 3.21 yeas, the invested amount is recovered.
The question is incomplete. The complete question is,
Presently, Stock A pays a dividend of $1.00 a share, and you expect the dividend to grow rapidly for the next four years at 20 percent. Thus the dividend payments will be
Year Dividend
1 $1.20
2 1.44
3 1.73
4 2.07
After this initial period of super growth, the rate of increase in the dividend should decline to 8 percent. If you want to earn 12 percent on investments in common stock, what is the maximum you should pay for this stock?
Answer:
The maximum that should be paid for the stock today is $40.29
Explanation:
We will use the two stage dividend growth model of DDM to calculate the price of the stock today. The DDM values the stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The formula for price under the two stage model is,
P0 = D1 / (1+r) + D2 / (1+r)^2 + ... + Dn / (1+r)^n + [Dn * (1+g2) / (r - g2)] / (1+r)^n
P0 = 1.2 / (1+0.12) + 1.44 / (1+0.12)^2 + 1.73 / (1+0.12)^3 + 2.07 * (1+0.12)^4 +
[2.07 * (1+0.08) / (0.12 - 0.08)] / (1+0.12)^4
P0 = $40.2853 rounded off to $40.29
