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igor_vitrenko [27]
3 years ago
12

If the Nineteenth Amendment was not enacted, which of the following reasons would be valid for denying an individual the right t

o vote? Race Gender Citizenship Age
History
2 answers:
Maslowich3 years ago
4 0
Gender, since the 19th amendment amendment gave rights to everyone. No one was denied voting privileges, solely because of gender.
neonofarm [45]3 years ago
3 0

The answer is gender. The Nineteenth Amendment provides men and women with equal voting rights.

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I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.

The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.

Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.

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