This equation would be written as 2(n-3)=8.
Answer:
156.86
Step-by-step explanation:
We start by dividing 136.40 by 100 so we can figure how much 1 percent,(1.364) once we have that we multiply by 15 (20.46), we add that to the total
Answer:
Tom is incorrect
Step-by-step explanation:
The odds of getting any number on a 6-sided die are 
Every time he rolls, there is a
chance he gets any number. Therefore, it is totally plausible to get the same number again. As the number of rolls tends toward infinity, the ratio of each number occurring to number of rolls equals
.
Answer:
Infinity
Step-by-step explanation:
It is possible for the coin to endlessly fall on tails, so there are infinity different outcomes.
Tell me if I'm wrong :)
Answer:
b
Step-by-step explanation:
when you bring 3 to the right side its not working so when you divide it (cause you don't want any numb with the w) you get 32 :)