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vesna_86 [32]
3 years ago
6

otato Company began the period with an accounts receivable balance of $2,693 and a balance in the allowance for doubtful account

s of $494 The following transactions occurred in Potato Company a. During the period, customer balances are written off in the amount of $668 b. At the end of the period, bad debt expense is estimated to be $749. What is the balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts after these transactions
Business
1 answer:
Sphinxa [80]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Potato Company

Balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $575 (Credit).

Explanation:

We can use a T-account for the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts to determine the balance:

                                      Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

a. Accounts Receivable         $668     Beginning Balance   $494

 Ending Balance                     <u>$575</u>  b. Bad Debt Expense  <u>$749</u>

                                              <u>$1,243</u>                                    <u>$1,243</u>

                                                                Ending Balance     $575

The allowance for doubtful accounts is a contra account to the Accounts Receivable account.  Its purpose to provide some estimation of the uncollectibles as a way of managing the credit risk involved in trade sales.

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Damien Carranza is a nonexempt employee of Verdant Enterprises where he is a salesperson, earning a base annual salary of $31,75
Allushta [10]

Answer:

Damien Carranza

Gross pay = $1.494.17

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Base annual salary = $31,750

Weekly base hours = 40 hours

We assume that there are 52 weeks in a calendar year.

Hourly rate = $31,750/(52 weeks * 40 hours) = $15.26442 per hour

Overtime worked = 4 hours

Overtime rate = 4 * $31,750/2,080 * 1.5 = $91.59

Weekly base pay = 40 * $31,750/2,080 = 610.58

Commission = $26,400 * 3% =                 792.00

Gross pay =                                            $1,494.17

b) Since Damien is a non-exempt employee, he is entitled to earn the federal minimum wage and qualify for overtime pay.  This is calculated as one-and-a-half times his hourly rate, for every hour worked above and beyond the standard 40-hour workweek.  The gross pay is Damien's total earnings throughout the week before deductions for mandated taxes, health insurance, retirement, and Medicare contributions are made.

7 0
3 years ago
Problem 7-5 Coupon Rates [LO2] Gabriele Enterprises has bonds on the market making annual payments, with eight years to maturity
kakasveta [241]

Answer:

5.32%

Explanation:

The computation of the coupon rate on the bonds is shown below:

As we know that

Current price = Annual coupon × Present value of annuity factor(6.1%,8 ) + $1,000 × Present value of discounting factor(6.1%,8)

$952 = Annual coupon × 6.18529143 + $1,000 × 0.622697222

Annual coupon is

= ($952 - 622.697222) ÷ 6.18529143

= $53.24

Now

Coupon rate is

= Annual coupon ÷ Face value

= $53.24 ÷ $1,000

= 5.32%

Working notes:

1. Present value of annuity is

= Annuity × [1 - (1 + interest rate)^-time period] ÷ rate

= Annual coupon × [1 - (1.061)^-8] ÷ 0.061

= Annual coupon × 6.18529143

And,

2.Present value of discounting factor is

= $1,000 ÷ 1.061^8

= $1000 × 0.622697222

4 0
3 years ago
The phase of the Technology Product Development Cycle that describes key technology that has been integrated into many products
Serga [27]
I believe the correct answer from the choices listed above is option B. <span>The phase of the Technology Product Development Cycle that describes key technology that has been integrated into many products is the mature phase. Hope this answers the question.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
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Professor Bai is worried about his job security, and has started to venture into a new startup. Perhaps surprisingly, he is able
zvonat [6]

Answer:

Explanation:

Price is sum of:

1. Present value of expected dividend payments during 1-4 years;

2. Present value of the expected market price at the end of the fourth year based on growth at 5%.

Present value of expected dividend payments during 1-4 years:

PV1 = 3*(1+0.30)*0.8929 = 3.90*0.8929 = $3.482

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Total = $17.661

Present value of the expected market price at the end of the fourth year:

Market price of the share at the end = 5th year dividend/(Required rate of return - growth rate)

5th year dividend = $8.5683*(1+growth rate) = $8.5683*(1+0.05) = $9

Market price of the share at the end = $9/(0.12-0.05) = $128.57

Present value of $128.57 is 128.57*0.6355(present value interest factor for year 4) = $81.7

So the price of share is $17.661+$81.7 = $99.37

8 0
3 years ago
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lord [1]

Flow to Equity (FTE) is the approach to capital budgeting that discounts the after-tax cash flow from a project going to the equity holders of a levered firm.

An alternative capital budgeting strategy is the flow to equity (FTE) or free cash flow approach. The FTE approach merely requires that equity capital be discounted at the cost of the cash flows from the project to the equity holders of the leveraged firm. The amount of cash that a company's equity shareholders have access to after all costs, reinvestment, and debt repayment is taken into account is known as flow to equity. Free Cash Flow to Equity (FCFE) is calculated as Net Income - (Capital Expenditures - Depreciation) - (Change in Non-cash Working Capital) - (Change in Non-cash Equity) + (New Debt Issued - Debt Repayments) This is the cash flow that can be used to repurchase stock or pay dividends.

More about cash flow brainly.com/question/17406590

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4 0
1 year ago
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