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Tasya [4]
3 years ago
14

Brandon and jane forte file a joint tax return and decide to itemize their deductions. the forte's income for the year consists

of $120,000 in salary, $1,000 interest income, $1,500 nonqualifying dividends, and $1,000 long-term capital gains. the forte's expenses for the year consist of $3,000 investment interest expense and $900 tax preparation fees. assuming that the forte's marginal tax rate is 30%, what is the amount of investment interest expense deduction for the year?
Business
1 answer:
netineya [11]3 years ago
8 0
The interest income for the year is $1000. The investment interest expense is $ 3000. As per the provision the investment income expenses deduction is allowed to the extent of investment income. The amount which could not be deducted can be carried forward for next year. So the investment interest expenses allowed as deduction is limited to $1000 for Forte for the year. Since the dividend income is non qualifying income no expense is allowed on such income.
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Draw the tree for a put option on $20,000 with a strike price of £10,000. the current exchange rate is £1.00 = $2.00 and in one
telo118 [61]

Answer:

$ 0.000912 / pound

Explanation:

Current spot rate : 100 pound / $ or 0.01 $ / pound

In the next period the $ value of the pound can either increase or decrease by 15%

$ Risk-free rate = 5% and

pound Risk-free rate = 1%

Net Risk- free Rate = 5 - 1

                               = 4%

Risk-Neutral Probability of price Rise (p) = (0.04 - 0.085) / (1.15 - 0.85)

                                                                   = 0.653

$ price of pound if price rises = 1.15 x 0.01 =$ 0.0115 / pound

$ price of pound if price falls = 0.85 x 0.01 = $ 0.0085 / pound

Strike price = current spot rate (as option is at the money) = 0.01 $ / pound

Therefore, pay offs one period later

if price is $ 0.0115 / pound, pay off (p₁)= 0.0115 - 0.01

                                                              = 0.0015$/ Pound

If price is 0.0085 $ / pound, pay off (p₂) = $0

Hence, Expecyed pay off = p₁ x p + p₂ x (1-p)

                                           = 0.0015 x 0.633 + 0 x ( 1 - 0.633)

                                            = $ 0.00095 / pound

Call price = Present value of Expected pay off at Net Risk-free risk

                = 0.00095 exp (0.04)

                 = $ 0.000912 / pound

5 0
3 years ago
During 2020, Flint Corporation reported net sales of $5,490,000 and net income of $1,320,000. Its balance sheet reported average
koban [17]

Answer:

The asset turnover is 3.66 times

Explanation:

Asset Turnover is the efficiency rate of the assets of the business to generate revenue for the business. It shows how efficiently the assets of the business are used to generate revenue for the business.

Formula for Asset turnover is as follow

Asset Turnover = Net sales / Average total assets

Asset Turnover = $5,490,000 / $1,500,000

Asset Turnover = 3.66 times

It means that the sale for the period is generated to 3.66 times of average total asset of the business.

5 0
3 years ago
Joe works for a life insurance company that funds commercial investment projects and often insures these projects by insisting o
Mademuasel [1]

Answer: Participation

Explanation:

Participation financing is a firm of financing whereby a loan is shared by several parties because such loans are too huge and a party cannot take the loan alone.

Since we are informed that works for a life insurance company that funds commercial investment projects and often insures these projects by insisting on an equity position, this means that participation financing is being practiced.

7 0
3 years ago
________________ mortgage is two or more mortgages consolidated into one payment, and is usually designed to allow the buyer to
azamat

Answer:

wrap around mortgage

Explanation:

A wrap-around mortgage is can be used in deals of owner-financing.

Wrap around mortgage refers to two or more mortgages consolidated into one payment. Such type of mortgage allow the buyer to purchase with a smaller down payment. A buyer also gets an added benefit of a below market interest rate first mortgage. A wrap-around mortgage can only be used to homes with an existing FHA or VA loans.

8 0
3 years ago
Why is gdp an imperfect measurement of total production in the​ economy?
ra1l [238]
First of all, GDP does not include household production, production from the underground economy, intermadiate goods or intermediate servces. That is because we define GDP to be the total of all market values of all final goods and services in the country. Hence, the correct answer by the above definition cannot be d. The point of that definition is that household products cannot have a market value and that if we counted towards the GDP both the value of a Graphics Card and that of the PC, we would double count the value of the Graphics Card, thus overestimating the GDP. We see that the value of new houses are included in GDP since they need materials and services and they have a market value, so b is also excluded. Finally, we have shown that b is true but that this is a good thing and leads to a better estimate of total production; the correct answer is a. Here is an example. If there is an economy where in every house there is plenty of wood and people make wood dolls out of tradition, these dolls will not have a market value if they are kept by the people who made them. Nonetheless they are products too and everyone could just try to sell them the next day at a reasonable price; then, the GDP would get a bump out of nowhere, because it cannot account for household items or the underground economy.

8 0
3 years ago
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