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Liono4ka [1.6K]
3 years ago
11

A lender lends $18,600, which is to be repaid in annual payments of $3100 for 6 years. Which of the following shows the timeline

of the loan from the lender’s perspective?
A) Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 Year 6
-$18,600 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100

B) Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 Year 6
0 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100

C) Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 Year 6
-$18,600 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100

C) Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Year 5 Year 6
-$18,600 $3,100 $6,100 $8,100 $8,100 $9,100 $10,100
Business
1 answer:
givi [52]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct option is option C

$18,600 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100 $3,100

Explanation:

Year0- $18600

Year1 - $3100

Year2 - $3100

Year3. $3100

Year5. $3100

Year6. $3100

That is the timeline of the loan from the lender's perspective.

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Quad Enterprises is considering a new three-year expansion project that requires an initial fixed asset investment of $2.3 milli
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Answer:

a)

MACRS 3 year depreciation schedule

33.33% x $2,300,000 = $766,590

44.45% x $2,300,000 = $1,022,350

14.81% x $2,300,000 = $340,630

carrying value at end of year 3 = $170,430

net after tax cash flow from salvage value = $210,000 - [($210,000 - $170,430) x 22%] = $201,294.60

cash flows:

year 0 = -$2,300,000 - $270,000 = -$2,570,000

year 1 = [($1,720,000 - $628,000 - $766,590) x 0.78] + $766,590 = $1,020,410

year 2 = [($1,720,000 - $628,000 - $1,022,350) x 0.78] + $1,022,350 = $1,076,677

year 3 = [($1,720,000 - $628,000 - $340,630) x 0.78] + $340,630 + $201,294.60 + $270,000 = $1,397,993

b)

NPV = $297,794, and IRR = 16.12%

6 0
3 years ago
Sydney wins a prize. She has a choice of receiving a payment of $160,000 immediately or of receiving a deferred perpetuity with
Mamont248 [21]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

She has a choice of receiving a payment of $160,000 immediately or of receiving deferred perpetuity with $10,000 annual payments, the first payment occurring in exactly four years.

A) i= 5%

First, we need to determine the value of the perpetuity four years from now.

Perpetuity= 10,000/0.05= 200,000

Now, we can calculate the present value:

PV= 200,000/(1.05^4)= $164,540.50

B) i= 6%

Perpetuity= 10,000/0.06= $166,666.67

PV= $166,666.67/1.06^4= $132,015.61

C) She should consider her necessities of cash and the value of the products she can purchase now.

5 0
3 years ago
The total fixed overhead variance is:a. the difference between actual and budgeted fixed overhead costs. b. the difference betwe
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Answer:

a. the difference between actual and budgeted fixed overhead costs.

Explanation:

As we know that

The variance is shows the difference between the actual amount and the budgeted amount or estimate amount

So, the total fixed overhead variance is the difference between the actual fixed overhead costs and the budgeted fixed overhead costs i.e to be fixed in nature

Hence, the first option is correct

3 0
3 years ago
There are 3 things to consider to help you gather the information needed: target you audience, determine the purpose and stand o
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Answer:

True

Explanation:

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8 0
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Which of the following journal entries represents an increase in accounts payable correctly
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Answer:

C) Inventory xxx Accounts Payable xxx

Explanation:

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Accordingly the company buys inventory and the inventory is an asset and thus, the company will debit the inventory account.

Whenever any purchases are made, or any service is utilized on credit then the company creates an accounts payable as a liability as against it.

8 0
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