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3 years ago

11

Which expression is equivalent?

1 answer:

Dafna11 [192]3 years ago

5 0

Distribute the -9 into the values in the parentheses.

$-9(-2x-3)$

$-9*-2x=18x$

$-9*-3=27$

Therefore, the equation then becomes: $18x+27$ .

<u>The answer is the first choice, or A.</u>

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3 years ago

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A simple random sample of 1000 American adults found that the average number of hours spent watching television during a typical

Anika [276]

Answer:

Larger for the sample of Canadians

Step-by-step explanation:

The larger the sample size, the smaller the standard deviation (sampling variability) associated with the sample means and vice-versa.

The sample of Canadians is smaller, it is expected that their sampling variability is larger than the sample of Canadians based on the rule that as the sample size increases, the standard deviation of the means decreases; and as the sample size decreases, the standard deviation of the sample means increases

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3 years ago

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Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

The answer is "The discriminant is positive"

Step-by-step explanation:

When the discriminant is positive there is two real solutions.

When the discriminant is equal to 0, there is one real solution.

When the discriminant is negative, there is no real number solutions.

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2 years ago

The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,

Mama L [17]

Answer:

$(a)\ P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

$(b)\ P(x \ge 1) =0.7275$

$(c)\ P(x \le 2) = 0.8948$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

$n = 8$ --- 8 friends

$p = 15\%$ --- proportion that one-time fling

This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

$P(X = x) = ^nC_x* p^x * (1 - p)^{n-x}$

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling

$P(x = 0) = ^8C_0* (15\%)^0 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-0}$

$P(x = 0) = 1* 1 * (1 - 0.15)^{8}$

$P(x = 0) = 0.85^8$

$P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

Solving (b): $P(x \ge 1)$

To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

$P(x = 0) + P(x \ge 1) =1$

Rewrite as:

$P(x \ge 1) =1 - P(x = 0)$

$P(x \ge 1) =1 - 0.2725$

$P(x \ge 1) =0.7275$

Solving (c): $P(x\le 2)$ --- Not more than 2 has one time fling

This is calculated as:

$P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)$

We have:

$P(x = 0) = 0.2725$

$P(x = 1) = ^8C_1* (15\%)^1 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-1}$

$P(x = 1) = 8* (0.15) * (1 - 0.15)^7$

$P(x = 1) = 0.3847$

$P(x = 2) = ^8C_2* (15\%)^2 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-2}$

$P(x = 2) = 28* (0.15)^2 * (1-0.15)^6$

$P(x = 2) = 0.2376$

So:

$P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)$

$P(x \le 2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376$

$P(x \le 2) = 0.8948$

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3 years ago

What is identity property mean?

kow [346]

Any number multiplied by one keeps its identity

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3 years ago