Answer:
0.2752512
Step-by-step explanation:
The formula you are looking for is the binomial probability:
n!
P (X) = ------------ * (P)^X * (q)^n - X
(n- X)! X!
For your particular problem:
n=7
X=2
q = 1-p = .8
7!/(5!*2!)*(.2)^2*(.8)^5 = 0.2752512
Hope this helps, have a nice day/night! :D
From the graph, it is obvious that the trend is decreasing from 100 on day 2, to 1 on day 10. So, the answer could either be A or C. The question would be how fast is it decreasing? To illustrate this, let's find the difference of consecutive data:
100 - 26 = 74
26 - 6 = 20
6 - 2=4
2-1=1
It must not be an additive rate because there is no common difference. Let's illustrate if the trend is in multiplicative rate:
100/26 = 3.85
26/6 = 4.33
6/2 = 3
2/1 = 2
More or less, they have a common divider. Hence, the decreasing rate is in multiplicative rate. The answer is A.
Answer:
1:1
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer should be C :) in order for there to be a function, first rule is the x number cannot repeat
Answer:
12 inches
Step-by-step explanation:
A square has 4 sides with the same length.
The perimeter of a square is the 4 times the length of one side.
perimeter = 4s
perimeter = 4 * 3 inches
perimeter = 12 inches
