If you take 3 by 2 what do you get

Mathematics

1 answer:

jekas [21]3 years ago

4 0

By multiplying the factors together you’ll get 6

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Fill in the blanks below.

Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

a) Slope of the line m = ∞

b) Slope of the line m =0

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation:-

Step(i):-

Given points are ( 7,7) and (7,-8)

Slope of the line

$m = \frac{y_{2} - y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }$

$m = \frac{-8-7 }{7-7 } = \frac{-15}{0} = infinite$

m = ∞

Step(ii):-

Given points are (-6,7) and (9,7)

Slope of the line

$m = \frac{y_{2} - y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }$

$m = \frac{7-7 }{9-(-6) } = \frac{0}{15} = 0$

Slope of the line m =0

6 0

3 years ago

You play two games against the same opponent. The probability you win the first game is 0.4. If you win the first game, the prob

Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

a) No

b) 42%

c) 8%

d) X 0 1 2

P(X) 42% 50% 8%

e) 0.62

Step-by-step explanation:

a) No, the two games are not independent because the the probability you win the second game is dependent on the probability that you win or lose the second game.

b) P(lose first game) = 1 - P(win first game) = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6

P(lose second game) = 1 - P(win second game) = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7

P(lose both games) = P(lose first game) × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%

c) P(win first game) = 0.4

P(win second game) = 0.2

P(win both games) = P(win first game) × P(win second game) = 0.4 × 0.2 = 0.08 = 8%

d) X 0 1 2

P(X) 42% 50% 8%

P(X = 0) = P(lose both games) = P(lose first game) × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%

P(X = 1) = [ P(lose first game) × P(win second game)] + [ P(win first game) × P(lose second game)] = ( 0.6 × 0.3) + (0.4 × 0.8) = 0.18 + 0.32 = 0.5 = 50%

e) The expected value $\mu=\Sigma}xP(x)= (0*0.42)+(1*0.5)+(2*0.08)=0.66$