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aksik [14]
3 years ago
11

In​ long-run equilibrium, all firms in the industry earn zero economic profit. Why is this​ true? All firms in perfectly competi

tive industries earn zero economic profit in the long run because A. firms are price​ takers, maximizing profit by producing where total revenue equals total cost. B. if profit were​ positive, then firms would produce more​, increasing ​price, and if profit were​ negative, then firms would produce less​, decreasing price. C. firms are price​ takers, maximizing profit by producing where price equals marginal cost. D. if profit were​ positive, then firms would​ enter, decreasing​ price, and if profit were​ negative, then firms would​ exit, increasing price. E. barriers to entry and exit prevent firms from earning positive or negative economic profit.
Business
1 answer:
zvonat [6]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

D. if profit were​ positive, then firms would​ enter, decreasing​ price, and if profit were​ negative, then firms would​ exit, increasing price.

Explanation:

Perfectly competitive firms are price takers, hence they cannot influence the price of their products.

Perfectly competitive industries have no barriers to entry or exist of firms ,so if in the short run, firms are earning economic profit, then firms would​ enter into the industry , decreasing​ price, and if profit were​ negative, then firms would​ exit, increasing price. This makes perfect competitive firms to earn zero economic profit in the long run.

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Even though most corporate bonds in the United States make coupon payments semiannually, bonds issued elsewhere often have annua
kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

Price of bond = $ 924.50

Explanation:

<em>The value of the bond is the present value(PV) of the future cash receipts expected from the bond. The value is equal to present values of interest payment plus the redemption value (RV).  </em>

Value of Bond = PV of interest + PV of RV  

The price of the bond can be worked out as follows:  

Step 1  

PV of interest payments  

annul interest payment = 6.4 % × 1,000 = 64

Annual yield = 7.5%

Total period to maturity (in years) =10

PV of interest =  

64 × (1- (1.075)^(-10)/)/0.075= 439.30

Step 2  

PV of Redemption Value  

= 1,000× (1.075)^(-10) =   485.19

Step 3

Price of bond  

439.30 + 485.19 =$924.49

Price of bond = $ 924.50

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose you work in Management and are collaborating with Human Resources to create a regression equation to predict turnover (p
solong [7]

We can actually deduce here that when building the Complete 2nd Order Model, one can do all except: C. Create an interaction between age and each of the levels of job satisfaction.

<h3>What is Complete Second Order Model?</h3>

The complete second degree (order) model is actually known to be a polynomial model that includes the linear terms, second degree terms and the interaction term.

The options that complete the question are:

A. Create a curvilinear term for job satisfaction

B. Create an interaction between unemployment rate and age

C. Create an interaction between age and each of the levels of job satisfaction

D. Create a curvilinear term for age.

Thus, options C is the one that wouldn't be carried out in the Complete Second Order Model.

Learn more about Human Resources on brainly.com/question/25443563

#SPJ11

7 0
2 years ago
Economists were sharply divided over how to best fight the Great Recession. A vocal minority of economists favored the "Structur
mel-nik [20]

Answer:

rely on the invisible hand of the market to reallocate resources,

Explanation:

The invincible hand was adams Smith's idea which is defined as an observable market force that helps the demand and supply of goods in a free market to attain equilibrium naturally without government intervention in the market thereby leaving the people alone to buy and sell freely among themselves . This would naturally choose type of goods to be produced and reduce resource waste by closing Down weak markets that produce less demanded products.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sidewinder, Inc., has sales of $686,723, costs of $335,000, depreciation expense of $80,000, interest expense of $45,000, and a
algol13

Answer:

The addition to retained earnings is $95,751.

Explanation:

Addition to the retained earning is the net value of net earning of the year and dividend payment.

Net income

Sales                                                $686,723

Costs                                               (<u>$335,000)</u>

Gross income                                  $351,723

Depreciation Expense                   <u>($80,000)</u>

Income before interest and tax     $271,723

Interest Expense                            <u>($45,000)</u>

Income before tax                           $226,723

Tax 22%                                          <u>($49,879)</u>

Net Income                                      <u>$176,844</u>

Addition to Retained Earning = Net Income - Dividend Payment

Addition to Retained Earning = $176,844 - $81,093

Addition to Retained Earning = $95,751

8 0
3 years ago
Bank A quotes a bid rate of $.300 and an ask rate of $.305 for the Malaysian ringgit (MYR). Bank B quotes a bid rate of $.306 an
alexdok [17]

Answer:

B. $1,639 ​

Explanation:

To do arbitraje we will ask at Bank A for $0.305

and then bid in Bank B at $0.306

As the transactions has no cost we are doing a profit by using the exchange as they allowed. Doing this procedure will at some point eliminate the difference in exchange rate for these bank as the purchase will rise the ask rate for Bank A and the sale will decrease the bid rate.

500,000 \times \frac{0.306}{0.305}

Total: 501639,3442622951

The profit will be for: 501,639.34 - 500,000 = 1,639.34

7 0
3 years ago
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