Answer:
d. 8.18 million
MVA is $380 million
Explanation:
Net residual Income is the value of the firm. All the preferred and required / agreed return on any the funding availed is deducted from the net earning after profit to make the value for the firm. The income purely associated to the firm is considered as the value of the firm.
Earning Before Interest and tax = Net Sales - Operating costs = $80 million - $52 million = $28 million
Net Operating profit after tax = $28 x ( 1 - 40% ) = $16.8 million
Return on investor-supplied capital = $115 million x 7.5% = $8.625 million
Value created for the firm = Net operating profit after tax - Return on investor-supplied capital = $16.8 - $8.625 = $8.175 million = $8.18 million
MVA is the net of market capitalization and stockholders equity of the firm. It is the difference of market value and book value of equity of a firm.
MVA = ( Outstanding shares x Market value of shares ) - Book value od the equity = ( 20 million shares x $25 per share ) - $120 million = $500 million - $120 million = $380 million
$127.27
Price index is (new year/old year)*100
If 2005 is the base/old year, then:
$700/550 = 1.27273 * 100 = $127.27
Price index is used to show inflation from year to year by the change in price for the same goods in a base year to current year. Price index for the base year compared to the base year will always be 100, so anything above that shows inflation.
Answer:
$5,500
Explanation:
When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.
To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.
Adjustments to allowance required
= $15,000 - $9,500
= $5,500
The entries to be posted are
Debit Bad debt $5,500
Credit Allowance for Doubtful debt $5,500
Answer:
A) $800,000
Explanation:
Since the current reserve ratio is 20%, and the bank has no excess reserves, then the maximum it can lend if it receives $1 is $800,000.
The bank has currently $50 million in deposits and $10 million in reserves ($6 million in cash and $4 million in the Fed), so its reserves are exactly 20% of its total deposits. So if any new deposits are received, the bank will have to keep as reserves 20% of it (= $1,000,000 x 20% = $200,000).
This type of banking system is called the fractional banking system because banks are only required to keep a fraction of the money they receive as deposits and they can lend the rest to other clients.
Answer: $59,780.65
Explanation:
To find out what she would accept today, we need to apply the present value formula which is= V.P(1+i)^-n
So, $80,000(1+6%)^-5= $59,780.65
