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stepladder [879]
4 years ago
10

When determining the cost of a manufactured good under an operation-costing system, a company would:

Business
1 answer:
Nonamiya [84]4 years ago
7 0

A company would trace direct-material cost to each product produced and use a predetermined application rate for conversion cost.

Explanation:

In this operation costing system the cost of the operation and the process cost are in parallel with the conversion cost and when when a company uses this they trace the direct material cost to each of the product produced and they predetermine the application rate of the conversion cost

The raw materials are manufactured in one way and the individual products are manufactured in another way and hence there is a mix of both the jobs and the prices may vary. Hence to avoid this confusion operation costing system was introduced

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Teagan Company uses Departmental Overhead allocation to allocate its manufacturing overhead costs. It has identified two​ depart
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

Machining:

Allocated MOH= $603

Assembly:

Allocated MOH= $450

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Machining:

Allocates overhead using machine-hours

Estimated manufacturing​ overhead: ​ $670,000

Estimated machine-hours= 10,000

Assembly:

Allocates overhead using direct labor hours.

Estimated manufacturing​ overhead: ​$450,000

Estimated direct labor hours= 15,000 hours

First, we need to calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate for each department:

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Machining:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 670,000/10,000= $67 per machine hour

Assembly:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 450,000/15,000= $30 per direct labor hour.

Job​ 601:

Machining​ Department: 9 Machine Hours

Assembly​ Department: 15 DL hours

To allocate overhead we use the following formula:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Machining:

Allocated MOH= 67*9= $603

Assembly:

Allocated MOH= 30*15= $450

5 0
3 years ago
The president of the company you work for has asked you to evaluate the proposed acquisition of a new chromatograph for the firm
Tems11 [23]

Answer:

Part A)

Year 0 net cash flow would comprise of basic price, modification cost and requirement for net working capital. The formula for cash flow in Year 0 would be:

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -Basic Price - Modification Cost - NWC

______________

Using the values provided in the question, we get,

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -190,000 - 47,500 - 9,500 = -$247,000

______________________

Part B:

Year 1, 2 and 3 would required adjustment for depreciation charges (under MACRS) against expected savings. The depreciation rates for 3 year class asset would be 33%, 45% and 15% for Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3 respectively.

Depreciation would be calculated on the equipment's basic price and modification cost.

The formula that can be used to calculate the net operating cash flow would be:

Net Operating Cash Flow = (Sales - Depreciation)*(1-Tax Rate) + Depreciation

______________

Using the values provided in the question, we get, the table in the attached file

Important Information:

Depreciation (Year 1) = (190,000 + 47,500)*33% = $78,375

Depreciation (Year 2) = (190,000 + 47,500)*45% = $106,875

Depreciation (Year 3) = (190,000 + 47,500)*15% = $35,625

______________________

Part C:

Additional non operating cash flow would consist of after-tax salvage value and return of net working capital. Relevant formulas are:

Additional Non Operating Cash Flow = After Tax Salvage Value + Return of Net Working Capital

After Tax Salvage Value = Sales Value +/- Tax on Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset

Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset = Sales Value - Book Value

Book Value = (Basic Price + Modification Cost)*(1-(33%+45%+15%))

______________

Using the above mentioned formulas, we get,

Book Value = (190000 + 47500)*(1-(33%+45%+15%)) = $16,625

Gain on Sale of Equipment = 66,500 - 16,625 = $49,875

Tax on Gain = $49,875*30% = $14,962.50

After Tax Salvage Value = 66,500 - 14,962.50 = $51,537.50

_____________________

Additional (Non Operating) Cash Flow = $51,537.50 + $9,500 = $61,037.50 or $61,038

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
A disadvantage of corporations is that shareholders have to pay on profits.
olga_2 [115]

Answer:

taxes

Explanation:

just took the test

4 0
3 years ago
20. WACC and NPV [LO3, 5] Sommer, Inc., is considering a project that will result
g100num [7]
Mark Brainliest please

Sommer Inc is considering the new project, and yet we have to calculate under what circumstances the company have to take on the project. In order to assess the project, we need to compute the break-even cost such as the present value of future cash flows and calculate the WACC weighted cost of capital. It measures the weighted cost of equity and the after tax cost of debt. The following information are given: Debt to equity ratio = 0.90 Cost of equity = 13% After-tax cost of debt = 4.8% After-tax cost of savings = $2.7 million Debt to equity ratio = Debt / Equity = 0.90 Therefore, Value of firm = value of debt + value of equity Value of firm = 0.90E + E Value of firm

See the calculation of WACC as attachment
8 0
3 years ago
True Tomato Inc. makes organic ketchup. To promote its products, this firm decided to make bottles in the shape of tomatoes. To
Amanda [17]

Answer:

The answer is: Physical asset specificity

Explanation:

In a business to business relationship, physical asset specificity refers to an asset, or product or service designed to fit a particular or specialized customer's need.

In this case, True Tomato needs a very specific type of bottle that probably no other ketchup manufacturer may use or want to use. So their bottle supplier specifically manufactures the tomato shaped bottle to meet True Tomato's specific requirements.

3 0
3 years ago
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