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bagirrra123 [75]
3 years ago
8

The following summarizes the aging of accounts receivable for Johnston Supplies, Inc. as of July 31, 2019: Number of Days Unpaid

Total Accounts Receivable Historical % Uncollectible Not yet due $ 127,400 3 % 1-30 days past due 90,100 13 % 31-60 days past due 54,500 19 % Over 60 days past due 32,700 33 % Required: The unadjusted balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of Johnston Supplies, Inc. is a credit balance in the amount of $29,217 on July 31, 2019. Prepare the required adjusting entry to record Bad Debt Expense for the year. Johnston Supplies, Inc. writes off $3,171 of uncollectible accounts on August 15, 2019. Prepare the required adjusting entry to record the write-off. Use a T-account to determine the account balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts on August 15, 2019.
Business
1 answer:
Art [367]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

bad debt expense 7,464 debit

      allowance for doubtful accounts   7,464 credit

--to record year-end adjustment for bad debt expense--

allowance for doubtful accounts 3,171 debit

                   accounts receivables      3,171 credit

--to record write-off of a custoemr account--

Explanation:

We multiply each balance by their expected uncollectible amount:

Date   // Amount  // Expected    //  uncollectible

not due 127400 0.03         3,822

up to 30 90100 0.13                  11,713

up to 60 54500 0.19                 10,355

above 61  32700 0.33          10,791

                 Total        36,681

Allowance balance 29,217

Difference 36,681 - 29,217 = 7,464

The write-off will decrease both, account recievable and the allowance

Allowance for doubtful accounts

<u>Debit      Credit</u>

            36,681

3,171

Balance 33,510

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Presented below is information for Headland Company.
OlgaM077 [116]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

For account receivable turnover ratio

Accounts Receivable Turnover is

= Sales ÷ Average Receivables

Beginning Accounts Receivable  $21,400

Add: Sales                                 $105,300

Less: Cash Receipts                $81,300

Ending Accounts Receivable   $45,400

Now

Accounts Receivable Turnover is

= $105,300 ÷ ($21,400 + $45,400) ÷ 2

= 3.15 times

Now days to sell is  

= 365 ÷ 3.15 times

=116 days

5 0
3 years ago
Bob, age 17, has entered into a contract to buy a car. The contract is: a. voidable. b. void. c. voidable only if Bob can return
AysviL [449]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": voidable.

Explanation:

Voidable contracts are those that cannot be enforced because one or the two parties involved are not legally eligible to go on in such an agreement. Reasons to void a contract include but are not limited to failure to disclose material facts, legal incapacity to enter a contract or inconsistent contractual terms.

Thus, <em>Bob's contract to purchase a car is voidable since he is legally incapable of signing agreements due to his age (17 years old).</em>

4 0
3 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
4 years ago
A company is considering replacing an old piece of machinery, which cost $105,000 and has $55,000 of accumulated depreciation to
asambeis [7]

Answer:

Replacing the old machine would produce a net saving of $1,300

The sunk cost in this situation is the purchase cost (i.e $105,000) of the old machine.

Explanation:

<em>Differential Analysis</em>

Purchase cost of the new machine                                 (83,000)

Savings from annual variable cost(8500×8)                   68,000

Variable cost of running the new machine (5,000×8)   (40,000)

Scrap value of the old machine                                    <u>    56,300 </u>  

Differential savings                                                       <u>      1,300   </u>

Replacing the old machine would produce a net saving of $1,300

The sunk cost in this situation is the purchase cost (i.e $105,000) of the old machine. It is a past cost incurred as a result old decision.

7 0
3 years ago
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Naily [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is option c.

Explanation:

A perfectly competitive market has a large number of buyers and sellers. The firms are price takers and the price is determined by the market forces. Thus the monopoly firms face a horizontal demand curve. This horizontal line represents price, average revenue, and marginal revenue. The equilibrium is obtained where price, (average revenue and marginal revenue) is equal to marginal cost. There is no restriction on entry and exit of firms in the long run. That's why firms face a break-even in the long run.  

While in a monopoly market there is a single firm. This firm fixes price higher than marginal cost. The demand curve of the monopoly is a downward sloping showing relatively elastic demand. A monopoly firm can earn profits in both the short run as well as the long run.

6 0
3 years ago
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