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VashaNatasha [74]
3 years ago
13

Why did thousands of Americans moved to the west in the 1840s?

History
2 answers:
zmey [24]3 years ago
6 0
The moved when they discovered all the gold in the western part of the U.S.
masha68 [24]3 years ago
5 0

They moved because in 1837 There was a Saying Called the Panic Days and it had many Americans scared because of Jobs life Farms destroyed with crops so they were running out of Options. Then Oregon had recently Joined the U.S. so people thought of Moving to a New state to try and Start over. Also with the Fact that Texas,California and even going into North Nevada and Colorado Go Conquered People wanted a Way out.


I Hope this Helped a Little

-Dante

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I NEED HELP FAST
Oduvanchick [21]

Answer: The first intifada

This occurred in December 1987 when an Israeli vehicle struck two vans carrying Palestinian workers, killing four of them, an event that was perceived by Palestinians as an act of revenge for the death by stabbing of an Israeli in Gaza a few days earlier.

HOPE THIS HELPS

5 0
3 years ago
What did the Spanish and their indigenous allies hope to gain by presenting this image of Motecuzoma?
NARA [144]

Answer: The Spanish were trying to make the Aztec leader out to be a coward and weak.

The Spanish were attempting to give the impression of being powerful with their animals and technology.

Perhaps the Spanish were trying to give the impression that they were likely to win—thereby attracting more indigenous allies.

Explanation:

the following document based on indigenous account but filtered through imperial Spanish sensibilities suggested that the motecuzoma reacted with fright when presented with reports that were less than reassuring since they focused on fearsome weapons and animals of the Spanish. Given the material response of Aztecs to the Spanish invasion it seems highly unlikely that Motecuzoma or the azetecs would have expressed terror in such a humiliating fashion

5 0
3 years ago
Why did the British Parliament impose taxes on the colonists after 1763?
butalik [34]

Answer:

The King and Parliament believed they had the right to tax the colonies. They decided to require several kinds of taxes from the colonists to help pay for the French and Indian War. In fact, the Britain also needs to gain money and to pay for its war debts

Explanation:

6 0
4 years ago
When did recipients of aid have to pay for the war goods?
soldi70 [24.7K]
The might be c because u would have to pay after u have destroyed everything including war goods after, a war.
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which battle was the most influential on the confedratws army during the civil war?
Leokris [45]
Battle of bull run....
5 0
3 years ago
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