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enot [183]
3 years ago
9

Pacific Packaging's ROE last year was only 6%; but its management has developed a new operating plan that calls for a debt-to-ca

pital ratio of 55%, which will result in annual interest charges of $152,000. The firm has no plans to use preferred stock and total assets equal total invested capital. Management projects an EBIT of $452,000 on sales of $4,000,000, and it expects to have a total assets turnover ratio of 3.6. Under these conditions, the tax rate will be 40%. If the changes are made, what will be the company's return on equity
Business
1 answer:
Flura [38]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

36%

Explanation:

For the computation of the company's return on equity first we need to follow some steps which is shown below:-

Step 1

Earnings before tax = EBIT - Interest

= $452,000 - $152,000

= $300,000

Step 2

Earnings after interest and taxes = Earnings before tax - Tax

= $300,000 - ($300,000 × 40%)

= $300,000 - $120,000

= $180,000

Step 3

Asset turnover ratio = Total revenue ÷ Total assets

3.6 = $4,000,000 ÷ Total assets

Total assets = $1,111,111.11

Step 4

Equity ratio = 1 - Debt ratio

= 1 - 0.55

= 0.45

Step 5

Total Equity = Equity ratio × Total assets

= 0.45 × $1,111,111.11

= $500,000

and finally

Return on Equity = Net income ÷ Equity

= $180,000 ÷ $500,000

= 0.36

or

= 36%

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The president of the Micro Brewing Corporation asks you, as the company economist, to forecast changes in consumer beer purchase
umka21 [38]

Answer:

It is more profitable to raise the selling price by $2.

Explanation:

To determine whether the company should raise the selling price, we need to determine the effect on income. <u>The best option is the one with the higher sales revenue.</u>

Sales revenue= selling price * number of units

<u>Current:</u>

Sales revenue= 5.5*2,200= $12,100

<u>Proposal:</u>

Sales revenue= 7.5*1,800= $13,500

It is more profitable to raise the selling price by $2.

7 0
3 years ago
On January 2, 2009, L Co. issued at par $20,000 of 4% bonds convertible in total into 1,000 shares of L's common stock. No bonds
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The correct answer is $1.2 per share.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Interest expense of Bonds = $20,000 × 4% = $800

Now, Interest expense of Bond, After tax = $800 × ( 1 - 50%) = $800 × 0.50

= $400

So, we can calculate the diluted earning by using following formula:

Diluted Earning = (Net income + Interest expense after tax) ÷ Total outstanding shares outstanding

Where, Total outstanding shares = 1,000 shares + 1,000 shares = 2,000 shares

By putting the value, we get

Diluted earning = ($2000 + $400 ) ÷ 2,000

= $1.2 per share

4 0
3 years ago
A two-year bond with par value $1,000 making annual coupon payments of $100 is priced at $1,000. a. What is the yield to maturit
amm1812

Answer: 10%

Explanation:

When the price of a bond is at par, it means that the coupon rate and the Yield to Maturity are the same.

The Coupon rate is the interest rate that the Issuer of the bond pays the bond holders as a percentage of Par.

The Coupon payment here is $100 and the rate is;

= 100/1,000

= 10%

<em>Coupon Rate = 10% = Yield to Maturity </em>

4 0
3 years ago
Data pertaining to a company's joint production for the current period follows
Ainat [17]

Answer:

a. $295.81

Explanation:

Total market value = (310 * 10.2) + (260 * 20.4)

Total market value = 3,162 + 5,304

Total market value = 8466

Joint cost allocated to L on basis of value

= [ (310 * 10.2) / 8,466] * 792

= (3,162 / 8,466) * 792

= $295.81

4 0
3 years ago
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Rina8888 [55]
Warehousing & Distribution Center

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3 years ago
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