Answer: c. $94,240
Explanation:
On December 31, 2005, one payment has already been made which would mean that only 7 payments are left. As the first of these remaining 7 will be paid the year after, this is an ordinary annuity.
Note payable value = Present value of seven $20,000 payments
= 20,000 * Present value of ordinary annuity of 1 at 11% for 7 years.
= 20,000 * 4.712
= $94,240
Answer: The company should not buy the new equipment
Explanation:
For the 1st case:
Revenue = Selling price × Number of units
= 1 × 30000
= $30,000
Total cost = Fixed cost + Variable cost
= 14000 + (0.5 × 30000)
= 14000 + 15000
= $29000
Profit = Revenue - Cost
= $30000 - $29000
= $1000
For the 2nd case:
Revenue = Selling price × Number of units
Revenue = Selling price × Number of units
= 1 × 50000
= $50,000
Total cost = Fixed cost + Variable cost
= 20000 + (0.6 × 50000)
= 20000 + 30000
= $50000
Profit = Revenue - Cost
= $50000 - $50000
= $0
Based on the calculation above, the company should not buy the new equipment as no profit will be made while currently a profit of $1000 is made.
Inflation is d) a microeconomic issue.
<h3>
What is inflation?</h3>
Inflation can be describ3ed as the rise in the price of goods as well as well as services which is an incessant increase.
However, Microeconomics explores issues that relates to the decision on how families make them as regards to what to buy and how much to save, hence Inflation is a microeconomic issue.
Therefore, option D is correct.
Learn more on Inflation at:
brainly.com/question/8149429
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Answer:
Earning per share for the year 2016 is $2.68
Explanation:
For computing the earning per share, we have to use the formula of earning per share which is shown below:
= Net income ÷ total number of outstanding shares
where,
Net income is $937,500
And, the total number of outstanding shares equals to
= 2015 shares + 2016 shares
= 300,000 + 50,000
= 350,000
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the earning per share would be equals to
= $937,500 ÷ 350,000 shares
= $2.68
The earning after tax is not considered. Thus, it is ignored.
Hence, earning per share for the year 2016 is $2.68
Answer:
58,500
Explanation:
Given the information above, the formula for Inventory loss is
Inventory loss = Opening inventory + Purchases - Cost of sales
Where,
Cost of sales = $432,000 × 100 ÷ 160
=$270,000
Since opening inventory = $153,000
Purchases = $175,500
Therefore,
Inventory loss = $153,000 + $175,500 - $270,000
= $58,500
