Answer:
Explanation:
Expenditure made to reduce costs; Expenditure made to increase revenue; Expenditure which is justified on non-economic grounds.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The reason is that the betas are calculated using the past data which means that the Capital asset pricing model solely rely on the past data which is not the strength of the CAPM. It is basically a weakness of the model so the statement is incorrect.
Answer:
$74,932.66
Explanation:
Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows.
Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator
Cash flow from year 1 to 4 = $20,000
Cash flow in year 5 = $25,000
I = 12%
Present value = $74,932.66
To find the PV using a financial calacutor:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
3. Press compute
I hope my answer helps you
The use of effective contracts with penalties could reduce the following forms of supply chain risks:
- Distribution
- Logistic delays or damages
- Supplier failure to deliver
<h3>
What are supply chain risks?</h3>
Supply chain risk management is "the implementation of strategies to manage routine and non-routine risks in the supply chain to reduce vulnerability and ensure continuity based on ongoing risk assessment".
<h3>
What are effective contracts?</h3>
Most contracts only need to contain two elements to be legally effective: the parties must agree (after one party has made an offer and the other has accepted it).
Something of value, such as money, services or goods (or a promise to exchange such goods) must be exchanged for something else of value.
Learn more about Effective Contracts:
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Full Question
The use of effective contracts with penalties could reduce which form of supply chain risk?
A. Distribution
B. Logistic delays or damages
C. Supplier failure to deliver
D. All of the above Question:
Answer:
6.383%
Explanation:
Calculation for the What is the yield to maturity
Using this formula
YTM=n√Face value/Bond price -1
Where,
n=one-year
Face value=10,000
Bond price=9,400
Let plug in the formula
YTM=1√10,000/9,400−1
YTM=1.06383-1
YTM=0.06383*100
YTM=6.383%
Therefore the yield to maturity will be 6.383%
