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ch4aika [34]
3 years ago
7

At which inventory level is operations management considered to be doing an excellent job?

Business
1 answer:
Natalka [10]3 years ago
8 0

operations management is considered to be doing a great job when you are able to lead your crew and make sure all of the inventory is in order.
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Which of the following lists correctly identifies a few of the basic elements all market economies share?
IgorLugansk [536]

I believe that it is d


4 0
3 years ago
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Myers Company uses a flexible budget for manufacturing overhead based on direct labor hours. Variable manufacturing overhead cos
kozerog [31]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following formula:

Variable overhead:

Indirect labor $1.00

Indirect materials 0.70

Utilities 0.40

Total fixed overhead= 4,000 + 1,200 + 800= $6,000

<u>In the relevant rage, the fixed costs remain constant. Only the variable cost change with production on a total basis.</u>

<u>7,000 Units:</u>

Indirect labor= 1*7,000= 7,000

Indirect materials= 0.70*7,000= 4,900

Utilities= 0.40*7,000= 2,800

Total= 14,700

Total fixed overhead costs= 6,000

Total overhead= $20,700

<u>8,000 Units:</u>

Indirect labor= 1*8,000= 8,000

Indirect materials= 0.70*8,000= 5,600

Utilities= 0.40*8,000= 3,200

Total= 16,800

Total fixed overhead costs= 6,000

Total overhead= $22,800

<u>9,000 Units:</u>

Indirect labor= 1*9,000= 9,000

Indirect materials= 0.70*9,000= 6,300

Utilities= 0.40*9,000= 3,600

Total= 18,900

Total fixed overhead costs= 6,000

Total overhead= $24,900

<u>10,000 Units:</u>

Indirect labor= 1*10,000= 10,000

Indirect materials= 0.70*10,000= 7,000

Utilities= 0.40*10,000= 4,000

Total= 21,000

Total fixed overhead costs= 6,000

Total overhead= $27,000

7 0
3 years ago
You are attempting to value a call option with an exercise price of $109 and one year to expiration. The underlying stock pays n
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

The value of the call option today is $14.29

Explanation:

The two-state stock pricing model is one that prices are based on the assumption that there is no arbitrage profit opportunity as well as the fact that the call option's value will be the present value(PV) of the expected future winnings for long call.

Now, value of the call option if the prices go up will be;

142 - 109 = $32

While if the prices go down, it will be;

76 - 109 = -$33

The call option in this case can only be utilized when the market value exceeds the exercise price.

Therefore, the expected winnings value after one year will be;

Value after one year = (32 × 0.5) + (0 × 0.5)

Value after one year = $16

We used 0 in the multiplication because the call wouldn't be utilized for when the prices go down.

one year from now the long call can be expected to earn $16 .

Thus, today the present value of this amount will be the price of the call option if we take into cognizance that here will be no arbitrage profit opportunity.

With risk-free rate of interest is 12%, we have;

PV = 16/1.12 = $14.29

3 0
3 years ago
The most worthless money in the world?​
Inessa [10]
A penny


But the most worthless thing in the world is love.
You love them and they snap you like a twig
3 0
3 years ago
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XYZ corporation acquired two inventory items at a lump-sum cost of $100,000. The acquisition included 3,000 units of product 1P,
mina [271]

Answer:

b. $11,250

Explanation:

We are asked to know the gross profit:

gross profit: sales revenue - COGS

in this case sales revenue 1,000 units x $ 30 = 30,000

for COGS we will calculate with weighted average based on the sales price:

3,000 x 30 + 7,000 x 10 = 90,000 + 70,000 = 160,000

the cost of 160,000 dollars of sale is 100,000

we cross multiply for 30,000:

100,000 / 160,000 x 30,000 = 18,750 cost

now we solve for gross profit:

sales 30,000 - cost 18,750 = 11.250

6 0
4 years ago
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