If u do the formula m=y^2-y^1/x^2-x^1 then u have 3-2/6-0 and that simplifies to 1/6 and that is your answer
answer: 1/6
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
because it makes more sense
Answer:
C)
Step-by-step explanation:
Prime factorization of 420 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 22 × 3 × 5 × 7.
If you take...
2 + 2 + 3 + 5 + 7...
You would get 17.
Hope this helps! :) Good Luck!
<em>-kiniwih426</em>
<span><span>1.
If we get an odd number first (probability 5/10 = 1/2), then the only way to get a number greater than 9 is the 10 (probability 1/9, since only 9 papers remain). This gives 1/2 * 1/9 = 1/18.</span></span><span><span>
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</span></span><span><span>2.
We would expect that P(2 white cards) = P(1 white card)*P(2nd white card given 1 white card).</span></span><span><span /></span><span><span>This gives the equation 14/95 = 2/5 * x<span>
</span></span></span><span><span><span>Solving for x gives x = 7/19.</span></span></span><span><span>
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</span></span><span><span>3. There are a total of 4 favorable results: 1, 4, 5, 6. Out of the 6 possibilities, this is a probability of 4/6 = 2/3.</span></span>
Answer:
144
Step-by-step explanation:
