You will need 6 tennis balls a
Since the dice are fair and the rolling are independent, each single outcome has probability 1/15. Every time we choose

We have
and
, because the dice are fair.
Now we use the assumption of independence to claim that

Now, we simply have to count in how many ways we can obtain every possible outcome for the sum. Consider the attached table: we can see that we can obtain:
- 2 in a unique way (1+1)
- 3 in two possible ways (1+2, 2+1)
- 4 in three possible ways
- 5 in three possible ways
- 6 in three possible ways
- 7 in two possible ways
- 8 in a unique way
This implies that the probabilities of the outcomes of
are the number of possible ways divided by 15: we can obtain 2 and 8 with probability 1/15, 3 and 7 with probability 2/15, and 4, 5 and 6 with probabilities 3/15=1/5
Hello,
y+2=1/3*(x-1) ==>3y+6=x-1==>x-3y-7=0
Answer C
Hello!
The first step to solving this equation would be to distribute the 8 to x+7 to simplify the equation:
(8*x)+(8*7)=104
8x+56=104
The second step would be to then subtract 56 from both sides to isolate 8x:
8x+56-56=104-56
8x=48
Finally, the last step would be to divide both sides by 8 to solve for x:
8x/8=48/8
x=6
Your final answer would be x=6
Hope this helps, and Happy New Year!
Answer:
20 is not a coefficient
True - constants are numbers that donʻt have a varible
Step-by-step explanation:
I hope this helps stay safe and have a good day! Can i get a brainiest if correct?