Answer:
Oar City
Step-by-step explanation:
Divide the first expense (27) by the time you ride (3 hours) and you get 9 dollars an hour
Divide the second expense (45) by the time you ride (9 hours) and you get 5 dollars an hour
Step-by-step explanation:
It is 340 dollars in total, I do this in an ubcenventional way of dividing 272 by 80 which gave you 3.4 which is equal to one percent and then multiply that by 20 which is 68 and add that to the other 80 percent of her bill to get 340 dollars
Answer:
hey
Step-by-step explanation:
formula used here
<h2>cos inverse (-theta)= π- cos inverse theta</h2>
see the attachment above
option c
Answer:
The correct options are;
1) ΔBCD is similar to ΔBSR
2) BR/RD = BS/SC
3) (BR)(SC) = (RD)(BS)
Step-by-step explanation:
1) Given that RS is parallel to DC, we have;
∠BDC = ∠BRS (Angles on the same side of transversal)
Similarly;
∠BCD = ∠BSR (Angles on the same side of transversal)
∠CBD = ∠CBD = (Reflexive property)
Therefore;
ΔBCD ~ ΔBSR Angle, Angle Angle (AAA) rule of congruency
2) Whereby ΔBCD ~ ΔBSR, we therefore have;
BC/BS = BD/BR → (BS + SC)/BS = (BR + RD)/BR = 1 + SC/BS = RD/BR + 1
1 + SC/BS = 1 + RD/BR = SC/BS = 1 + BR/RD - 1
SC/BS = RD/BR
Inverting both sides
BR/RD = BS/SC
3) From BR/RD = BS/SC the above we have by cross multiplication;
BR/RD = BS/SC gives;
BR × SC = RD × BR → (BR)(SC) = (RD)(BR).
Answer:
We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.
We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.
Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

With the following parameters:


Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
We know that n = 50 and p =0.78.
We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.
Since both conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation and the distribution for the proportion is given by:

With the following parameters:

