Answer:
1. $636
2. $674.16
3. $566.04
4. $534
Explanation:
PV = FV ÷ (1 + r/n)^(t × n)........(1)
PV = present value
FV = Future value
r = rate per period
t = number of years
n = number of compounded period per year
FV = P(1 + r/n)^(t×n)...............(2)
FV = Future value
P = principal
r = rate per period
n = number compounded period per year
t = number of year
NO 1.
P= $600
t = 1
n = 1
r = 6% = 0.06
Using equation 2
FV = 600(1 + 0.06/1)^(1 × 1) = $636
NO 2
P = $600
n = 1
t = 2
r = 0.06
Using equation 2
FV = 600(1 + 0.06/1)^(2 × 1) = $674.16
NO 3.
FV = $600
r = 0.06
t = 1
n = 1
Using equation 1
PV = 600 ÷ (1 + 0.06/1)^(1 × 1) = $566.04
NO 4.
FV = $600
r = 0.06
n = 1
t = 2
Using equation 1
PV = 600 ÷ (1 + 0.06/1)^(2 × 1) = $534
Can u take a screenshot of the whole question for me
The answer is foreign currency fluctuations.
Foreign currency fluctuations are basically the change in the values of currencies based on the demand of that currency.
In other words, the more the number of investors invests in the stocks regulated by the stock market to buy exports of any country, the more will be the value of the currency of that particular country and vice versa.
Foreign currency fluctuation occurs for all floating currencies all over the world.
Since in the given case, the value of the euro changes from US$1 to US$1.60 from 2002 to 2008 respectively.
Hence, this change in value is called Foreign currency fluctuations.
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