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Akimi4 [234]
3 years ago
15

Foston is directly between liberty and west Quall and is 4 inches from liberty on the map .how far is foston from west quall

Mathematics
2 answers:
Fed [463]3 years ago
6 0
IF Foston is directly between this means Foston is y the middle, so there is the same distance from Foston to Liberty and from Foston to West Quall = 4 inches
balu736 [363]3 years ago
4 0
Foston is 4 inches away from west quall on the map. this is so because x, Foston, is in the middle of both places.
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Jacob has some cookies. 3/4 of his cookies are chocolate chip. Out of the chocolate chip cookies 1/8 of them have nuts as well.
ryzh [129]
Well, we can find the answer by multiplying the two fractions. 3/4*1/8 equals 3/32.

7 0
3 years ago
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Please help me on this i don’t get it that well
NeX [460]

Answer:

13.75

Step-by-step explanation:

make a ratio between the original lengths, 11 : 5.5

then put the ratio of the enlarged lengths, 27.5 : __

now you divide 27.5 by 11 to find how many times you multiplied the lengths, 2.5.

now you multiply 5.5 by 2.5 giving you the answer of 13.75

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3 years ago
A binomial probability experiment is conducted with the given parameters. Compute the probability of x successes in the n indepe
Naddik [55]

Answer:

P (X ≤ 4)

Step-by-step explanation:

The binomial probability formula can be used to find the probability of a binomial experiment for a specific number of successes.  It <em>does not</em> find the probability for a <em>range</em> of successes, as in this case.

 

The <em>range</em> "x≤4" means x = 0 <em>or</em> x = 1 <em>or </em>x = 2 <em>or</em> x = 3 <em>or</em> x = 4, so there are five different probability calculations to do.

 

To to find the total probability, we use the addition rule that states that the probabilities of different events can be added to find the probability for the entire set of events only if the events are <em>Mutually Exclusive</em>. The outcomes of a binomial experiment are mutually exclusive for any value of x between zero and n, as long as n and p don't change, so we're allowed to add the five calculated probabilities together to find the total probability.

 

The probability that x ≤ 4 can be written as P (X ≤ 4) or as P (X = 0 or X = 1 or X = 2 or X = 3 or X = 4) which means (because of the addition rule) that P(x ≤ 4) = P(x = 0) + P(x = 1) + P (x = 2) + P (x = 3) + P (x = 4)

Therefore, the probability of x<4 successes is P (X ≤ 4)

3 0
3 years ago
Which shape is always a rectangle?
meriva

Answer:

D. A square because it has 4 right angles.

Step-by-step explanation:

A square is a rectangle but a rectangle is not a square.

8 0
3 years ago
How many different 4 digit even numbers can be written using 0,5,6,3,8,7?
kherson [118]

Step-by-step explanation:

I assume the digits cannot be repeated in the numbers.

and that we don't want any numbers that start with 0, as that would be considered a 3- digit number, right ?

so, under these assumptions we have the question of in how many ways can we pull 4 digits out of 6.

if the sequence of the pulled digits would not matter, it would be combinations C(6, 4).

but because we are building actual numbers, the sequence does matter, and we use permutations P(6, 4).

P(6, 4) = 6!/(6-4)! = 6!/2! = 6×5×4×3 = 360

so, we can create 360 different numbers.

but not all of them are wanted.

we don't want the ones that start with 0. how many are those ?

since we are handling all digits in the same way and priority, there are an equal amount of numbers that start with a 0, or a 5, or a 6, or a 3, or a 8, or a 7.

so, 1/6 of the 360 numbers start with a 0, and we need to subtract them :

360 - 60 = 300 really 4-digit numbers

and from these 300 we only want even numbers. that means they can only end with 0, 6 or 8.

in the same way as for the first position, we have 1/6 of the more 300 numbers that end with one of these digits.

we allow 3 digits, so we have

3×1/6 × 300 = 1/2 × 300 = 150

that means we can write 150 different 4-digit even numbers out of these 6 digits.

6 0
2 years ago
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