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dimulka [17.4K]
3 years ago
7

In humans, the allele for having dimples is dominant to the allele for not having dimples. What would you expect to see in the o

ffspring of a woman with dimples who is homozygous and a man who is heterozygous for the trait?
Answer
All of their offspring will have dimples.
None of their offspring will have dimples.
The probability of their offspring having dimples is 50%.
Their offspring will have a 75% chance of having dimples.
Biology
2 answers:
zysi [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

All of the offspring will have dimples.

Explanation:

Hope This Helps:)

zmey [24]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is <span>All of their offspring will have dimples.
</span>
A - dominant allele for having dimples
a - recessive allele for not having dimples

AA - individuals with dimples     (mother in our case)
Aa - individuals with dimples      (father in our case)
aa - individuals without dimples    

The cross would look like this:
Parents:      AA      x      Aa
Children: AA    AA    Aa    Aa

So, all of the offspring will have dimples
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