Answer:
59% - a)increase - b)decrease
Explanation:
First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.
Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).
Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).
With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.
Answer:
0.4766
Explanation:
Given:
WACC = 9.7%
Company’s cost of equity = 12%
Pretax cost of debt = 7.5%
Tax rate = 35%
Now,
WACC
= Weight × Cost of equity + (1 - weight) × Pretax cost of debt × (1-tax rate)
or
0.097 = weight × 0.12 + ( 1 - weight ) × 0.075 × (1 - 0.35)
or
0.097 = 0.12 × weight + 0.04875 - 0.04875 × weight
or
0.04825 = 0.07125 × weight
or
weight = 0.6772
also,
weight = 
or
= 
or
= 
+ 1
or
1.4766 = + 1
or
= 0.4766
Answer:
B. In JIT purchasing, raw materials (or goods) are purchased so that products are delivered just as needed for production or sales.
Explanation:
JIT stands for Just in time management. It is an inventory management approach that advocates for the purchase of materials just when they are needed for production. In JIT, there is no storing of materials for use for future production. The purchase of materials is aligned with the production process.
The success of JIT is dependent on management ability to forecast sales volumes accurately. Management must work with reliable suppliers to ensure that materials are available when required. JIT lower's the cost of inventory management by eliminating the need to store huge quantities of materials. It reduces wastage by doing away with losses that arise due to the storage of bulk materials.
The benefit enjoyed by a third party that is not directly involved in the production or consumption of a good or service is called externality.
What does the term externality mean?
Externalities are situations when the production or consumption of products and services has an impact on other people that results in costs or advantages that are not accounted for in the pricing charged for the goods and services being offered.
What impact do externalities have on the economy?
When people, households, and businesses fail to internalise the indirect costs or advantages of their economic interactions, externalities pose serious issues for economic policy. Inefficient market outcomes are the result of the resulting wedges between social and private costs or profits.
To know more about externality, click here- brainly.com/question/477170
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Answer:
a. $6,400.
Explanation:
In solving this question on Computing the amount of Purchasing department expense to be allocated to Assembly, we'll have to use the formula below:
Purchasing department expense to be allocated to Fabrication = Total Cost of purchasing department X number of purchase order in / Total numbers of purchase orders in all operating departments
= $32000 X 4/20 = $6,400
