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Paha777 [63]
3 years ago
10

The students in Ms. Lorenzo’s class collected the following numbers of bottle caps:

Mathematics
1 answer:
gladu [14]3 years ago
5 0
I am not sure how to show you how to do a dot plot on this website, but to see how to do a dot plot

b) Put everything in order and find the middle
10, 10, 10, 20, 30, 30, 30, 30, 40, 50, 50, 50, 60, 60, 70, 70, 2040
                                             ^^
So 40 is in the middle, making it the median

c) Add all of the values together and divide by the total number of values.
10 + 10 + 10 + 20 + 30 + 30 + 30 + 30 + 40 + 50 + 50 + 50 + 60 + 60 + 70 + 70 + 2040 = 2660
2660 / 17 = 156.5
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Which statement is true about the factorization of 30 ex 2+40 XY +51y2
forsale [732]
The statement that is true about the factorization of 30x2 + 40xy + 50y2 is that <span>The factorization of the polynomial is 10(3x2 + 4xy + 5y2).</span>
4 0
4 years ago
How many x-intercepts can a quadratic function have?
BabaBlast [244]

Answer:

<h2>There 2 x-intercepts can have for a quadratic function.</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

X-intercepts means, the value of y is 0.

For any function, x-intercepts mean the set of values of x, for which y = 0.

A quadratic function means a polynomial of degree 2.

The degree of any polynomial determines the number of x-intercepts of the polynomial.

Since, the quadratic function is a polynomial of degree 2, it has 2 x-intercepts.

8 0
4 years ago
with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee
prohojiy [21]

Answer:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And using the complement rule we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

7 0
3 years ago
Which set of ordered pairs could represent a function? (2, 3), (2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 9), (2, –2) (1, 5), (2, 6), (1, 6), (4, 5), (
Ratling [72]

Given:

The set of ordered pairs in the options:

(a) (2, 3), (2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 9), (2, –2)

(b) (1, 5), (2, 6), (1, 6), (4, 5), (1, 4)

(c) (1, 0), (2, 0), (1, 3), (4, 3), (5, 7)

(d) (5, 1), (7, 3), (9, 5), (11, 7), (13, 9)

To find:

The set of ordered pairs that could represent a function.

Solution:

A set of ordered pairs represent a function, if there exist unique output (y-value) for each input (x-value).

In option (a) we have, five output values y=3,2,4,9,-2 for single input x=2. So, it is not a function.

In option (b) we have, three output values y=5,6,4 for single input x=1. So, it is not a function.

In option (c) we have, two output values y=0,3 for single input x=1. So, it is not a function.

In option (d), all inputs has unique output.

Therefore, the correct option is (d).

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Someone Help Me Please ? , It’s Probability
olga nikolaevna [1]
1. correct
2. same as 1
3. 2/5, 2:5, .40, 40%
4. 3/5, 3:5, 0.60, 60%

Hope this helped☺☺
3 0
4 years ago
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