Answer:
1/12
Step-by-step explanation:
First, you should already be able to understand that the only number less than 2 on this cube is 1. So, you can understand that there is a 1/6 chance because there is a total of 6 numbers, and out of those, only 1 of those are your answer.
Then, you will note that a coin only has 2 sides, so there is a 50/50 chance of getting heads, or 50%. Now, you will turn that into a fraction, which is 1/2.
Next, you will multiply to make the denominators the same. And what you do to the denominator must happen to the numerator. (1/6 * 2--> 1/12 and 1/2 * 6 = 1/12)
Hope this helps! :)
Answer:
$1357.14
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that 2/7 of his Salary is on loans
2/7(1900) = 542.86
Remaining amount = $1900-$542.86 = $1357.14
One piece is 36 ft and the other is 98 ft. 36 +98= 136 ft. also one piece (38) times 3 is 114 minus 16 is 98. That should be correct. If it is, could you please mark me as brainliest? I can also try to explain further
Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation:
Using Pythagoras' identity in the right triangle
c² = 4² + 5² = 16 + 25 = 41 ( take the square root of both sides )
c = 
← exact solution → C
Answer:
The mode is 8
The mean is 5.4
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the mode you look for the most reocouring number in the number set, in this case that number is 8.
To find the mean you add up all the numbers and divide by the number of numbers in the set. In this case there are 10 numbers, so you add up all of the numbers then divide by 10.
I hope this answer was accurate and helpfull. Have a wonderful day!
