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3 years ago

Answer please I don't know what this mean I know square root and cube root.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Luba_88 [7]3 years ago

3 0

The answer is 2. You write the number in exponential form with a base of 2, then reduce the index of the radical and exponent with 4. Use photomath if you need more help with explanations.

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Help me with this!! Will mark Brainliest

sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

rita is make chili the recipe calls for 2 3/4 cups of tomatoes. How many cups of tomatoes,written as a fraction greater than one

Burka [1]

Given:
2 3/4 cups of tomatoes.

Number of cups of tomatoes written as a fraction greater than one.

2 3/4 is a mixed fraction. It is called such because it is a combination of a whole number and a fraction.

To find the number of cups of tomatoes written as fraction greater than 1, we need to convert the mixed fraction into an improper fraction.

Improper fraction is a fraction whose numerator is greater than its denominator.

2 3/4 ⇒ ((2*4)+3)/4 ⇒ (8+3)/4 ⇒ 11/4

11/4 is a fraction greater than one.

4/4 is a fraction that is equal to one. So, any numerator that is greater than 4 is a fraction that is greater than one. In this case, it is 11/4.

5 0

3 years ago

Because the car that has a terrible oil leak not only as a new battery for the van but also slows him down because he needs the

Thepotemich [5.8K]

11 hours and 15 minutes to drive 500 miles

5 0

3 years ago

DIscrete Math

Daniel [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

$f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective implies there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ .
If there exists a function $h : Y \rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h = 1_Y$ , then $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective

Let us start by the first implication.

Our hypothesis is that the function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective. From this we know that for every $y\in Y$ there exist, at least, one $x\in X$ such that $y=f(x)$ .

Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

We have that there exists a function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ such that $f\circ h=1_Y$ .

Take an element $y\in Y$ , then $f\circ h(y)=y$ . Now, write $x=h(y)$ and notice that $x\in X$ . Also, with this we have that $f(x)=y$ .

So, for every element $y\in Y$ we have found that an element $x\in X$ (recall that $x=h(y)$ ) such that $y=f(x)$ , which is equivalent to the fact that $f$ is surjective. Therefore, the prove is complete.

3 0

3 years ago

If you get 20 dollars a week and you want to to something that cost $901 how many months will it take to save up

Troyanec [42]

Answer:15 Months

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

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