B is the answer , because in functions, we can’t have two X for one Y
10×1/2N+6=8.
I hope this helps
Answer:
8
Step-by-step explanation:
I am not sure if that is correct but....
40/5=8
Step-by-step proving:
8*4=32
40-32=8
*I was proving my answer not explaining that much and the title is cringy*
3,000. You take 15,000 and multiply by .4 to get how much she spent on rent (6,000). They you subtract the rent money from her total pay to get her money that she spent on living expenses, clothes and entertainment in total (9,000). Since she spent her money in six parts (3+2+1), you divide 9,000 by 6 to get 1,500 to get each part. Since for entertainment she has two parts you multiply 1,500 by 2 to get 3,000.