Danny, John and Morgan are collecting donations for the schools' basketball team. Danny wants to

Write the equation of the line that passes through (2, 4) and has a slope of –1 in point-slope form.

grin007 [14]

y - y1 = m (x - x1)

where m is the slope and (x1 , y1) is the point given

We are given:

m= -1

the point is <span>(2, 4)
</span>

Then:

y - y1 = m (x - x1)
y-4 = (-1) (x-2)
y - 4 = -x + 2
y = -x +2 +4

y = -x + 6

Hope that helps you

8 0

3 years ago

A local reading club has a set of 12 hardback books, a set of 8 paperback, And a set of 36 magazines each set can be divided amo

notka56 [123]

The GCF is 6.... if u need me to explain id be happy to

7 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The Reunion Tower is one of the most recognizable landmarks in Dallas, Texas due to the giant sphere that sits atop the structur

ValentinkaMS [17]

The volume of a sphere uses the following formula:

$V = \frac{4}{3}\pi r^{3}$

Because the question asks to use 3.14 in place of pi, the formula will now look like this:

$V = (\frac{4}{3})(3.14)r^{3} = 4.18\overline{66} r^{3}$

We are given a diameter of 118 feet. The radius is half of the diameter, so divide the diameter by 2 to find the radius:

$118 \div 2 = 59$
$r = 59$

Plug this value into the formula, and solve with a calculator:

$4.18\overline{66} \times 59^3 = 4.18\overline{66} \times 205379 = 859853.413$

Although our result is one cubic foot off, the answer is <span>A. 859,852ft^3.

(859,852 is the result if the constant in the given formula is 4.18666, but the result with infinitely repeating numbers is 859,853.)</span>

6 0

3 years ago

Plssssss help me with this math pls

sdas [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is A) 4/663.

Step-by-step explanation:

First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.

Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king of clubs) in a deck of cards, the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.

Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,

4/52 x 4/51 =

4 x 4/52 x 51 =

16/2652

Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:

16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and

2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.

So, the final answer is 4/663.

4 0

3 years ago

Learning task 1: find the value of the expression given the value of the variables 3x + 5 x = 2 5xy + x - 4 , x = -3 and y = 5

olasank [31]

Step-by-step explanation:

3x+5x=25xy+x-4

8x=25xy+x-4

8(-3)=25(-3)(5)+(-3-4)

-24=25(-15)+(-7)

-24= -375-7

-24= -382

if the question is right that you asked, i mean the = sign then the solution is will be come like this but if there is no = sign then you can get the solution by subtracting -24-382= -406

8 0

3 years ago