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3 years ago

For each of the following separate transactions,

Business

1 answer:

Softa [21]3 years ago

3 0

Answer: The answer is provided below

Explanation:

a. The reconstructed journal entry has been prepared and attached.

b. The following are the effects it has on the investing section or the financing section of the statement of cash flows.

The first transaction will lead to a cash inflow of $8,000 from the investing activities.

The second transaction is non-cash transaction therefore, it will not be reported in either the financing or the investing activities.

The third transaction will lead to a cash inflow of $2,000 from the financing activities.

The fourth transaction will lead to a cash outflow from the financing activities.

Thw diagram has been attached.

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You are planning your retirement in 10 years. You currently have $169,000 in a bond account and $609,000 in a stock account. You

Over [174]

Answer:

$187,584.20

Explanation:

Firstly, we need to calculate the total future value (FV) of the bond account and stock account after 10 year from now (when you come to retirement age):

FV_bond at retirement = 169,000 x (1 + 7.25%)^10 + 7,100 x (1 + 7.25%)^9 + 7,100 x (1 + 7.25%)^8 + … 7,100 x (1 + 7.25%)^0 = 426,230.93

FV_stock at retirement = 609,000 x (1 + 10.75%)^10 = 1,690,653.63

Total FV of your investment portfolio = 2,116,884.57

Because you plan to use up all the funds in your account after 21 equal amount withdrawals after retirement, total present value (at the time you retire not now) of these withdrawals (discounted at 6.5%) have to be equal to the value of your invesment 10 years from now, or:

2,116,884.57 = C/(1+6.5%) + C/(1+6.5%)^2 + … + C/(1+6.5%)^21, with C is the amount you plan to withdraw each year.

Solve the equation we get C = 187,584.20

Note: The equation can be solved easily using Excel or BAII Plus. 

5 0

2 years ago

Accessory Industries has 2 million shares of common stock outstanding, 1 million shares of preferred stock outstanding, and 100

Natalija [7]

Answer:

Equity is 0.29

Debt is 0.64

Preferred stock 0.07

Explanation:

WACC=Ke*E/V+Kd*D/V*(1-t)*Kp*P/V

However, the requirements of the question is weights of the bonds,equity and preferred stock which are E/V,D/V and P/V respectively

E is the value of equity=2,000,000*$22=$44,000,000

D is the value of debt =100,000*$1000*96%=$96,000,000

P is the value of prefered stock=1,000,000*$10.50=$10,500,000

Total firm's finance(V) $150,500,000

E/V=$44,000,0000/$150,500,000=0.29

D/V=$96,000,0000/$150,500,000=0.64

p/v=$10,500,000/$150,500,000=0.07

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

ECON Good morning can someone answer this please asap

dusya [7]

The answer is B because both have access to capital that competitive markets wouldn’t give them because they dominate the market place and drive out competitors

5 0

2 years ago

The weekly incomes of shift foreman for a given industry follow a normal probability distribution. With a mean of $1,000 and a s

mylen [45]

Answer:

There is a 0.2419% for a foreman to earn either $1,100 or $900

Explanation:

We calculate the probability of a normal distribution of 0;1

(X-mean)/deviation = Z

(1,100 - 1,000)/100 = 100/100 = 1

900 - 1,00/100 = -100/100 = -1

Given the zame Z value, we have the same probability of a foreman to earn 1,100 or 900

As we are asked for the foreman salary, wewill calcualte the Z for non cumulative, just the probability of a foreman to earn 1,100 or 900 dollars.

We look into the normal distribution table for the value of z = -1 or 1

0.002419707 = 0.2419%

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3 years ago

Why is it important to understand economics

Nookie1986 [14]

Macroeconomics is important because it allows the public to understand the economy as a whole, fiscal policy and global economic policy.

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2 years ago