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SCORPION-xisa [38]
3 years ago
11

Harding, Jones, and Sandy, a partnership, is in the process of liquidating. The partners have the following capital account bala

nces; $24,000, $24,000, and ($9,000) respectively. The partners share all profits and losses 16%, 48%, and 36%, respectively. Sandy has indicated that the ($9,000) deficit will be covered with a forthcoming contribution. The remaining partners have requested an immediate distribution of $20,000 in cash that is available. How should this cash be distributed?
Business
1 answer:
Radda [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: <em><u>Cash to be distributed to  Harding = $ 17000,  Jones = $ 3000 </u></em>

Explanation:

It has been indicated that the ($9,000) deficit will be covered with a forthcoming contribution

∴ The Remaining Capital Balance is = (24000 + 24000) = $48000

∵Total cash Available = $20000

Loss = 48000 - 20000 =  $ 28000

Loss will be shared between Harding & Jones in ratio = 16:48

∴  Harding Capital balance = \frac{(24000 - 28000)\times16}{16+48} = $ 17000

∴ Jones Capital balance =  \frac{(24000 - 28000)\times48}{16+48} = $ 3000

Cash will be Distributed in their capital balance ratio

Therefore,

<u><em>Cash to be distributed to  Harding = $ 17000,  Jones = $ 3000 </em></u>

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WINSTONCH [101]

Answer:

The Communication Privacy Management Theory

Explanation:

The Communication Privacy Management Theory studies the ways that people think about and make decisions surrounding how to reveal or hide private information.

7 0
3 years ago
Graphical Designs is offering 10-10 preferred stock. The stock will pay an annual dividend of $10 with the first dividend paymen
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

PV of the stock today = $115.83

Explanation:

We will use the discounted cash flows approach to calculate the price of the stock today. This approach values the stock by accumulating the present value of all the expected future cash flows from the stock/asset.

As the preferred stock pays a constant dividend after equal intervals of time and for an indefinite period, it can also be treated as a perpetuity. Thus, the formula for the present value of perpetuity will be used to calculate the price of the stock at year 10 that we will discount back to today.

Present value of perpetuity = Cash flow  / expected rate of return

PV of stock at Year 10 = 10 / 0.052

PV of stock at Year 10 = 192.3076923

The value of the today will be,

PV of the stock today = 192.3076923 / (1+0.052)^10

PV of the stock today = $115.83

6 0
2 years ago
Nathan owns a termite inspection service, so he falls under the animal systems pathway in agricultural, food, and natural resour
valkas [14]
It would be false, because they don’t go into the same category
7 0
3 years ago
the aging of accounts receivable method is used to estimate bad debts at a certain firm. when accounting staff members total the
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

what should be the current balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts. The balance sheet's total receivables are netted against an allowance for doubtful accounts to show only the amounts anticipated to be paid.

The balance sheet's total receivables are netted against an allowance for doubtful accounts to show only the amounts anticipated to be paid. Estimated by the provision for doubtful accounts is the proportion of receivables that are anticipated to be uncollectible. However, the allowance estimate may be significantly off from how customers really pay.

Regardless of corporate policies and practices for credit collections, a transaction involving credit always has the risk of not being paid. A allowance corporation must therefore recognize this risk by creating a provision for doubtful accounts and offsetting bad debt expenditure. This complies with the matching principle of accounting by guaranteeing that costs associated with the sale are recorded during the same accounting period during which revenue is collected. Companies can estimate the true worth of their account receivables with greater accuracy thanks to the provision for dubious accounts.

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3 0
1 year ago
In​ 1885, first-class postage for a​ one-ounce letter cost​ $0.02. The same postage in 2015 costs​ $0.49. What compounded annual
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

2.49%

Explanation:

The period 't' between 2015 and 1885 is:

t = 2015 -1885 = 130\ years

The annual rate 'r' at which the original $0.02 value has been compounded over 130 years to reach a value of $0.49 is determined by:

0.49 = 0.02*(1+r)^{130}\\r=\sqrt[130]{24.5}-1\\ r=0.0249 = 2.49\%

The cost of​ first-class postage has experienced an annual increase of 2.49% over this period.

6 0
2 years ago
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