Answer:
Variable manufacturing overhead spending variance= $2,000 favorable
Explanation:
<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>
<u></u>
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 2,400,000 / 240,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $10 per machine hour
<u>To calculate the variable overhead spending variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
Variable manufacturing overhead spending variance= (standard rate - actual rate)* actual quantity
Variable manufacturing overhead spending variance= (15 - 214,000/21,600)*21,600
Variable manufacturing overhead spending variance= $2,000 favorable
Answer:
NIKE, INC.
Partial Balance Sheet as of May 31, 2022
(in millions)
<u>Property, Plant and Equipment</u>
Land $220.0
Buildings $980.0
Machinery and Equipment $2160.0
Other Plant Assets $935.0
Less: Accumulated Depreciation $2200.0 <u>$1875.0</u>
Total Property, Plant and Equipment <u>$2095.0</u>
<u>Intangible Assets</u>:
Goodwill $210.0
Patents and Trademarks $510.0
Less: Accumulated Amortization $50.0 <u>$460.0</u>
Total Intangible Assets <u>$670.0</u>
Answer:
The correct answer that fills the gap is Pulling.
Explanation:
This activity corresponds to Inbound Marketing, which is also called Attraction Marketing 2.0. This type of marketing is a marketing technique that aims to attract potential customers (prospects) through information of interest using different content formats (articles, videos, animations, infographics, ebooks, etc.) in the channels of digital communication of the company (blog, social networks, electronic newsletters, etc.). Attraction Marketing, instead of focusing directly on sales, as does more traditional marketing (sometimes known as interruption marketing), focuses on providing information to the potential consumer, so that it takes that company by an expert in the theme.
Answer:
December 26
Dr. Inventory $7,500
Cr. Account Payable $7,500
December 31
Dr. Account Payable $7,500
Dr. Discount Received $150
Cr. Cash $7,350
Explanation:
Credit terms of 2/10, n/30 means there is a discount of 2% is available on payment of due amount within discount period of 10 days after sale with net credit period of 30 days.
Purchase = $7,500
As payment is made within discount period, so the discount will be availed.
Discount = $7,500 x 2% = $150
Payment = $7,500 - $150 = $7,350
Answer:
D) $26,688
Explanation:
The computation of the present value is shown below:
= Annual payment × PVIFA for 7 years at 6%
= $4,781 × 5.5824
= $26,688
Refer to the PVIFA table
Simply we multiply the annual payment with the PVIFA so that the accurate amount can come.
The present value is come after considering the discount rate for the given number of periods
