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MAVERICK [17]
3 years ago
15

The figure below shows ADC and BEC.Complete the two-column proof.BE AC and AD CBCB ≅ CAProve: ADC ≅ BEC

Mathematics
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]3 years ago
6 0

Isn’t ADC = CAPROVE?

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Which number is not a rational number? <br> -5 times 4/11<br> root31<br> 7.608<br> 18.46 continuing
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What's the answer to number 7
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I don’t know if the first one is right but could someone guess true or false?
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Answer:

B) false D) true E) true

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in numbers to disprove the first one.

Area formula for triangles says D is true

It's the Pythagorean's Theorem for Heaven's sakes.

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A subset $S \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ is called open if for every $x \in S$, there exists a real number $\epsilon &gt; 0$ such that
const2013 [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

REcall that given sets S,T if we want to prove that S\subseteqT, then we need to prove that  for all x that is in S, it is in T.

a) Let (a,b) be a non empty interval and x\in (a,b). Then a<x <b. Let \varepsilon = \min{\min\{b-x, x-a\}}{2} Consider y \in (x-\varepsilon,x+\varepsilon), then

y and

y>x-\varepsilon>x-(x-a) = a.

Then y\in (a,b). Hence, (a,b) is open.

Consider the complement of [a,b] (i.e (a,b)^c).

Then, it is beyond the scope of this answer that

(a,b)^c = (-\infty,a) \cup (b,\infty).

Suppose that x\in (a,b)^c and without loss of generality, suppose that x < a (The same technique applies when x>b). Take \varepsilon = \frac{a-x}{2} and consider y \in (x-\varepsilon,x+\varepsilon). Then

y

Then y \in (-\infty,a). Applying the same argument when x \in (b,\infty) we find that [a,b] is closed.

c) Let I be an arbitrary set of indexes and consider the family of open sets \{A_i\}_{i\in I}. Let [tex]B = \bigcup_{i\in I}A_i. Let x \in B. Then, by detinition there exists an index i_0 such that x\in A_{i_0}. Since A_{i_0} is open, there exists a positive epsilon such that (x-\varepsilon,x+\varepsilon)\subseteq A_{i_0} \subseteq B. Hence, B is open.

d).  Consider the following family of open intervals A_n = (a-\frac{1}{n},b+\frac{1}{n}). Let B = \bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n. It can be easily proven that

B =[a,b]. Then, the intersection of open intervals doesn't need to be an open interval.

b) Note that for every x \in \mathbb{R} and for every \varepsilon>0 we have that (x-\varepsilon,x+\varepsilon)\subseteq \mathbb{R}. This means that \mathbb{R} is open, and by definition, \emptyset is closed.

Note that the definition of an open set is the following:

if for every x \in S, there exists a real number \epsilon > 0 such that (x-\epsilon,x \epsilon) \subseteq S. This means that if a set is not open, there exists an element x in the set S such that for a especific value of epsilon, the subset (x-epsilon, x + epsilon) is not a proper subset of S. Suppose that S is the empty set, and suppose that S is not open. This would imply, by the definition, that there exists an element in S that contradicts the definition of an open set. But, since S is the empty set, it is a contradiction that it has an element. Hence, it must be true that S (i.e the empty set) is open. Hence \mathbb{R} is also closed, by definition. If you want to prove that this are the only sets that satisfy this property, you must prove that \mathbb{R} is a connected set (this is a topic in topology)

6 0
3 years ago
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