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HACTEHA [7]
3 years ago
9

Standard rate per direct labor-hour $ 2 Standard direct labor-hours for each unit produced 3 Units manufactured 1,000 Actual dir

ect labor-hours worked during the month 3,300 Total actual variable manufacturing overhead $ 6,600 Knowledge Check 01 Assume that direct labor-hours is used as the overhead allocation base. What is the variable overhead efficiency variance
Business
1 answer:
Nastasia [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $600 unfavorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard rate per direct labor-hour $2

Standard direct labor-hours for each unit produced 3

Units manufactured 1,000

Actual direct labor-hours worked during the month 3,300

<u>To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (1,000*3 - 3,300)*2

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $600 unfavorable

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How does creating and maintaining competitive advantages in a platform business like Uber’s differ from a vertical chain busines
omeli [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

It differs from those adopted by taxi companies because platform business most times embrace a monopoly approach because they take over the market. Platform business have strong network effect and multihoming cost and they don't have a taste for service, therefore there is the consideration of strong Internet based network which connects drivers to customers which is a competitive advantage. There is the e-payment platform. The organization does not mange drivers or seek patronage since they do not bearing homing cost. Their only aim is to create a connection between drivers and their customers.

8 0
3 years ago
If, in a specific year, exports are $40 billion, business expenditures are $60 billion, the government collects $50 billion in t
katovenus [111]

The fiscal deficit for the government for the current year will be $20 billion for the given condition.

<h3>What is fiscal deficit?</h3>

The condition where there is an excess of expenditures over the income during a given financial period, it is known as fiscal deficit. The computation of fiscal deficit using the formula and the given information will be,

Fiscal Deficit = (Total Income – Total Expenditure)

Fiscal Deficit = $50 billion – $70 billion = -$20 billion

Hence, option C holds true regarding fiscal deficit. The complete question has been attached in the image for better reference.

Learn more about fiscal deficit here:

brainly.com/question/23795227

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
Lucy and Fred want to begin saving for their baby's college education. They estimate that they will need $120,000 in eighteen ye
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

$4,265.55

Explanation:

Future value = $120,000

Interest rate (i) = 5%

Annual deposit = ?

Time period (n) = 18 year

Since deposit are to be made at the beginning of each year, hence the relevant factor table to be used is future value annuity due factor table.

Future value = Annual deposit x future value annuity due factor (i%, n)

120,000 = Annual deposit x FVADF (5%, 18period)

120,000 = Annual deposit x 28.13238

Annual deposit = 120,000/28.13238

=$4,265.547

=$4,265.55

4 0
3 years ago
A broker-dealer and its agent are registered in State A. The agent tells a customer in State A that he is prohibited from making
OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

There is a violation of Uniform State Law because the agent has made an offer to sell an unregistered non-exempt security in that State

Explanation:

The Uniform State Securities Law is also called blue sky law, and they are put in place at the State level to prevent fraud and to enforce security regulation.

This law was set up to handle investments that do not occur at the federal level. These are out of the purview of the SEC so states handle them.

In the given scenario the agent is trying to make a non exempt security exempt by buying it from the client.

This is an attempt to sell the securities to investors through fraudulent means and it is a violation of Uniform State Law

8 0
2 years ago
"DEF Corporation, after many profitable years, declares a one-time special cash dividend of $5.00 per share. After the announcem
Tju [1.3M]

Answer: B. 1 DEF Jan 50 Call

Explanation:

The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) acting under its mandate of being an issuer and guarantor for options and futures contracts can alter options prices but does not do so for prices based on normal dividends as they are more regular and their effects are already accounted for in the price of the call.

When a company calls a one-time special cash dividend, this is new to the market which would not have incorporated it into the price of the call. The OCC will then adjust the price to account for this.

In this case it will do so by subtracting the dividend from the call;

= 55 - 5

= $50

The customer will then have 1 DEF Jan 50 Call .

8 0
3 years ago
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