Examine the supply and demand schedules for cell phones. How much would

Titus Company produced 5,900 units of a product that required 3.546 standard hours per unit. The standard fixed overhead cost pe

natta225 [31]

Answer:

$417 A.

It is an adverse variance.

Explanation:

Fixed factory overhead volume variance is the difference between budgeted output at 100% normal capacity and actual production volume multiplied by standard fixed overhead cost per unit.

Formula

Fixed factory overhead volume variance = (budgeted standard hours for 100% normal capacity - Actual standard output hours) × standard fixed overhead cost per unit.

Calculation

Since 5900 units of a product was produced in 3.546 standard hours per unit, total actual standard hour is therefore;

= 5900×3.546

=20,921 hours

Overhead cost per unit = $1.10 per hour

Hours at 100% normal capacity = 21,300 hours.

Recall the formula for fixed factory overhead volume variance is =(budgeted standard hours for 100% normal output- actual standard output hours)× standard fixed overhead per unit.

Therefore;

Fixed factory overhead volume variance =(21,300 hours - 20,921 hours)× $1.10

=379 hours × $1.10

=$417 A

It is therefore an adverse variance.

4 0

3 years ago

Which of the following statements about transportation in the United States is NOT true?

yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

The cost of gasoline is higher in the U.S. than anywhere else in the world.

Explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

Which is true about what a customer typically expects from a support technician?

vodomira [7]

<span>A customer expects a support technician to be knowledgeable, patient, and friendly. The support technician must be knowledgeable to the degree that they solve the issue at hand, but can also give basic information to a customer.</span>

3 0

3 years ago

Two investment advisers are comparing performance. One averaged a 19% return and the other a 16% return. However, the beta for t

finlep [7]

Answer: Adviser B is the superior stock selector.

Explanation:

For the comparision between the two investment advisers, the Jenson's Alpha will be utilized.

Jenson's Alpha:

= Portfolio Actual Return - CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio Return)

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 6%

Market return(E(Em) = 14%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1.5 (14-6)

= 6 + 12

= 18%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 18% = 1%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1(14-6) = 6 + 1(8) = 14%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 14% = 2%

Adviser B is a better selector because he has a larger alpha of 2% compared to Adviser A who has 1%.

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 3%

Market return(E(Rm) = 15%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1.5 (15-3)

= 3 + 18

= 21%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 21% = -2%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1(15-3) = 3 + 1(12) = 15%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 15% = 1%

Given the changes, Adviser B is still the better selector because he has a larger alpha of 1% compared to Adviser A who has -2%.

7 0

3 years ago

Assume that we are in the MM world. The beta of an all-equity firm is 1.4. Suppose the firm changes its capital structure to 40

balu736 [363]

Answer:

2.3

Explanation:

Levered Beta = Unlevered Beta x (1+D/E)

D/E = Debt-to-Equity Ratio

1.4 x (1 + 04 / 0.6) = 1.4 x 1.667 = 2.3

8 0

3 years ago