Answer:
0.0042 is the probability of the stick's weight being 2.33 oz or greater.
Explanation:
We are given the following information in the question:
Mean, μ = 1.75 oz
Standard Deviation, σ = 0.22 oz
We are given that the distribution of drumsticks is a bell shaped distribution that is a normal distribution.
Formula:
P(stick's weight being 2.33 oz or greater)
P(x > 2.33)
Calculation the value from standard normal z table, we have,

0.0042 is the probability of the stick's weight being 2.33 oz or greater.
Answer and Explanation:
Respected Sir,
Sub: Absorption costing to analyze product costs and subsequent cost-volume-profit decisions
As per your requirement please find the explanation below:
Absorption costing is a process by which we add part of the fixed overhead to the production expense of the goods. If we do on a per-unit basis. Here we will compute by dividing the fixed costs by the number of units that we built and sold over the era. Whereas Variable costing includes fixed overhead as a lump sum instead of a per-unit price.
Under this process, all your variable costs like equipment, raw materials, and shipping are included. We will add the maximum fixed overhead costs for the duration. Such costs are not calculated on a per-unit basis. Rather than we deduct them as a lump-sum expense from your income amount.
Variable costing is really useful as it reveals the earnings after all the expenses are paid for the accounting period. While you would not have earned revenue for the goods we purchased as some may be in the inventory, we are showing you have paid all of your expenses for the time. We have excess revenue when you actually sell the finished goods in the warehouse.
The absorption approach is not all that effective as absorption costing will inflate the income figures excessively in any given span of accounting. Since you're not going to subtract any of your fixed costs as we did not sell any of us produced goods, our profit and loss report doesn't reflect the maximum expenses you've had for the time. Therefore, these results may mislead us when our profitability is analyzed.
Regards
ABC
Answer:
No
Explanation:
An investment that "promises" a 44 percent annual return is most likely a scam, because even the riskiest stocks rarely yield annual returns higher than 10% of the initial investment.
Besides, the option is described as very complicated, and you as a potential investor do not understand it well, which is a very difficult position to be in because it could even lead you to being scammed without realizing.
$670 is the final balance due that max wants to pay.
<u>Explanation</u>:
- Max borrowed a $2000 amount on a 120-day note. First, he paid $700 in the 120-day note. So the current amount he paid is $700.
- After thirty days max paid the amount of $630. So totally he paid $1330 in a note of 75 days. So 45 days are remaining.
- So the final balance due is $670. So Max wants to pay $670 on a note of 45 days.